Advanced Pharmacology NSG 533 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS LATEST AND COMPREHENSIVE VERSION WITH
VERIFIED ANSWERS GUARANTEED PASS WITH INSTANT
PDF DOWNLOAD
EP is a 38-year-old female patient that comes in for diabetes education and management. She
was diagnosed 12 years ago and states lately she is not able to control her diet although she
continues a 1600 calorie diet with appropriate daily carbohydrate intake (per dietitian
prescription) and walks 40 minutes every day of the week. She states compliance with all
medications. She denies any history of hypoglycemia despite being able to identify signs and
symptoms and describe appropriate treatment strategies.
PMH: T2DM, HTN, obesity, depression, s/p thyroidectomy due to thyroid cancer
FmHx: Noncontributory
SHx: (−) Smoking, alcohol use, past marijuana use while in high school
Medications: Metformin 850 mg tid, glipizide 20 mg bid, lisinopril 20 mg daily, sertraline 100 mg
daily, multivitamin daily
Vitals: BP 128/82 mg Hg; P 72 beats/min; BMI 31 m/kg2
Laboratory test results: Na 134 mEq/L, K 5.4 mEq/L, Cl 106 mEq/L, BUN 16 mg/dL, SCr 0.89
mg/dL, glucose 128 mg/dL; A1C 7.8%
Based on EP's profile above, which of the agents would be able to obtain an A1C goal of less
than 7% and would be appropriate in the patient? Please provide an explanation of
appropriateness or lack thereof.
Exenatide - Exenatide (Bydureon) once weekly has been able to demonstrate weight loss and
decrease A1C% by 0.7% to 1.2% in clinical trials; however it is contraindicated for EP due to the
self-reported history of thyroid cancer.
Dapagliflozin - Dapagliflozin (Farxiga) is contraindicated in this patient due to hyperkalemia
which could be made worse by this drug. The package insert does not indicate a specific
potassium concentration cut off to no longer use this medication; however, there are better
choices in this patient.
,Sitagliptin - Sitagliptin (Januvia) is able to obtain an A1C goal of less than 7% based on clinical
trials and currently the patient does not have any cautionary objective measures to not use this
medication. DPP-IV inhibitors are weight neutral. DPP-IV inhibitors can be used in patients
taking sulfonylureas; however, it may be recommended to reduce or stop the sulfonylurea dose.
Acarbose - Acarbose (Precose) is not recommended for initial management and is associated
with significant GI side effects. More information would be needed regarding fasting and post-
prandial numbers. In addition, adding acarbose would only lower A1c by 0.8% at best and
therefore would not achieve the desired A1C goal of <7%
JR is a 68-year-old African American man with a new diagnosis of T2DM. He was classified as
having prediabetes (at risk for developing diabetes) 5 years before the diagnosis and has a
strong family history of type 2 diabetes. JR's blood pressure was 150/92 mm Hg. His laboratory
results revealed an A1C of 8.1%, normal cholesterol panel, and normal renal/hepatic function
were noted with today's laboratory test results.
Past medical history: Hypertension (diagnosed 4 y ago) Hyperlipidemia (diagnosed 2 y ago)
Pancreatitis (idiopathic) (acute hospitalization 3 y ago)
Family history: Type 2 diabetes
Medication: HCTZ 25 mg daily, simvastatin 10 mg daily
Allergies: SMZ/TMP
Vitals: BP: 150/92 mm Hg P: 78 beats/min RR: 12 rpm Waist Circumference: 46 in Weight: 267 lb
Height: 5 ′ 6 ″ BMI: 43.1 kg/m 2
Despite improvements in the past six weeks due to lifestyle changes and exercise, drug therapy
is to be started for JR's diabetes. Which drug therapy would be the best for JR to trial?
Discuss your opinion of JR's lipid management.
Discuss your opinion of JR's blood pressure management.
Metformin is the drug of choice recommended for most patients with diabetes in addition to
lifestyle modifications assuming no contraindications or intolerabilities are present upon
evaluation. Metformin has also shown to provide positive weight neutral/loss effects in obese
,patients. It is crucial to know the renal status of patients commencing metformin therapy to
limit the risk of lactic acidosis (JR is without contraindication).
Since his entry A1C is >7.5%, dual therapy is indicated. There are several potential choices. The
second step can be a dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor, it can be a glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1)
receptor agonist, it can be a TZD, it can be a sulfonylurea agent, it can be a SGLT2 inhibitor, or it
could be basal insulin. Anything next can be tried depending on what suits the circumstance
DPP4 inhibitors are weight neutral bet relatively benign side effect profile. Sitagliptin has been
associated with case reports of pancreatitis, so this specific agent should be avoided. $$$
GLP-1 analog and has data to support an A1C reduction necessary to gain glycemic control and
may assist with weight loss goals for this patient. New information suggests these agents may
provide benefits in those with ASCVD. JR has a past history of pancreatitis and GLP-1 analogs are
not recommended due to this contraindication
TZDs have data to support an A1C reduction necessary to gain glycemic control, but are
associated with weight gain, negative effects on lipids and increased risk of fracture. Until
recently, TZDs have also been linked to increased CV events and use has fallen out of favor
Sulfonylureas provide excellent A1C lowering, but are also associated with weight gain. They
also have the potential to cause hypoglycemia, so patient education is crucial. Because of his
allergies to "sulfa", use would be contraindicated
SGLT2 inhibitors have data to support an A1C reduction necessary to gain glycemic control. In
addition, they are associated with weight loss and blood pressure lowering. New information
demonstrates these agents may be beneficial in those with ASCVD, heart failure and / or CKD.
They are also associated with dyslipidemias as well. Prior to starting therapy, renal function and
electrolytes would have to be assessed. $$$
Based on the ASCVD recommendations (which are now paralleled by the 2015 ADA
recommendations), all patients with type I or II DM ages 40-75 should be on a moderate
intensity statin. If the patients 10 years ASCVD risk is greater than 7.5%, a high intensity statin
can be considered. Since all information needed to perform the estimate is not present, we can
assume JR need at least moderate intensity statin. ACCE/ACE guidelines still resemble those of
ATPIII. Even so, the recommendation is for a statin regardless of LDL-C in diabetics over 40 with
at least 1 risk factor of ASCVD.
Options: atorvastatin 10mg, rosuvastatin 10, simvastatin 20-40, pravastatin 40, lovastatin 40,
fluvastatin 40.
, An angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor and considered to be a drug of choice for renal
protection in patients with diabetes. ACEi and ARBs have demonstrated a reduction in renal
progression to overt proteinuria. African Americans may not see the maximum effect of blood
pressure lowering with ACEi due to a decreased amount of renin. Combination therapy with a
thiazide would be a reasonable add on
A patient with type 1 diabetes reports taking propranolol for hypertension. What concern does
this information present for the provider?
A patient with Type 1 DM is insulin dependent for glucose control and at high risk for
hypoglycemic episodes. Propanolol causes prolonged hypoglycemic episodes. Needs to switch
to ACE or ARB.
A provider teaches a patient who has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism about a new
prescription for levothyroxine. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further
teaching?
a. "I should not take heartburn medication without consulting my provider first."
b. "I should report insomnia, tremors, and an increased heart rate to my provider."
c. "If I take a multivitamin with iron, I should take it 4 hours after the levothyroxine."
d. "If I take calcium supplements, I may need to decrease my dose of levothyroxine."
D. Calcium may reduce levothyroxine absorption. Further education is needed if the patient
feels she can take half of a prescribed medication.
MC has undiagnosed multiple gastric ulcers. Shortly after consuming a large meal and alcohol
he experiences significant GI distress. He takes an OTC heartburn remedy. Within a minute or
two he develops what he will later describe as "belching, nausea and a bad bloated feeling".
Several of the ulcers began to bleed and he becomes profoundly hypotensive from the blood
ANSWERS LATEST AND COMPREHENSIVE VERSION WITH
VERIFIED ANSWERS GUARANTEED PASS WITH INSTANT
PDF DOWNLOAD
EP is a 38-year-old female patient that comes in for diabetes education and management. She
was diagnosed 12 years ago and states lately she is not able to control her diet although she
continues a 1600 calorie diet with appropriate daily carbohydrate intake (per dietitian
prescription) and walks 40 minutes every day of the week. She states compliance with all
medications. She denies any history of hypoglycemia despite being able to identify signs and
symptoms and describe appropriate treatment strategies.
PMH: T2DM, HTN, obesity, depression, s/p thyroidectomy due to thyroid cancer
FmHx: Noncontributory
SHx: (−) Smoking, alcohol use, past marijuana use while in high school
Medications: Metformin 850 mg tid, glipizide 20 mg bid, lisinopril 20 mg daily, sertraline 100 mg
daily, multivitamin daily
Vitals: BP 128/82 mg Hg; P 72 beats/min; BMI 31 m/kg2
Laboratory test results: Na 134 mEq/L, K 5.4 mEq/L, Cl 106 mEq/L, BUN 16 mg/dL, SCr 0.89
mg/dL, glucose 128 mg/dL; A1C 7.8%
Based on EP's profile above, which of the agents would be able to obtain an A1C goal of less
than 7% and would be appropriate in the patient? Please provide an explanation of
appropriateness or lack thereof.
Exenatide - Exenatide (Bydureon) once weekly has been able to demonstrate weight loss and
decrease A1C% by 0.7% to 1.2% in clinical trials; however it is contraindicated for EP due to the
self-reported history of thyroid cancer.
Dapagliflozin - Dapagliflozin (Farxiga) is contraindicated in this patient due to hyperkalemia
which could be made worse by this drug. The package insert does not indicate a specific
potassium concentration cut off to no longer use this medication; however, there are better
choices in this patient.
,Sitagliptin - Sitagliptin (Januvia) is able to obtain an A1C goal of less than 7% based on clinical
trials and currently the patient does not have any cautionary objective measures to not use this
medication. DPP-IV inhibitors are weight neutral. DPP-IV inhibitors can be used in patients
taking sulfonylureas; however, it may be recommended to reduce or stop the sulfonylurea dose.
Acarbose - Acarbose (Precose) is not recommended for initial management and is associated
with significant GI side effects. More information would be needed regarding fasting and post-
prandial numbers. In addition, adding acarbose would only lower A1c by 0.8% at best and
therefore would not achieve the desired A1C goal of <7%
JR is a 68-year-old African American man with a new diagnosis of T2DM. He was classified as
having prediabetes (at risk for developing diabetes) 5 years before the diagnosis and has a
strong family history of type 2 diabetes. JR's blood pressure was 150/92 mm Hg. His laboratory
results revealed an A1C of 8.1%, normal cholesterol panel, and normal renal/hepatic function
were noted with today's laboratory test results.
Past medical history: Hypertension (diagnosed 4 y ago) Hyperlipidemia (diagnosed 2 y ago)
Pancreatitis (idiopathic) (acute hospitalization 3 y ago)
Family history: Type 2 diabetes
Medication: HCTZ 25 mg daily, simvastatin 10 mg daily
Allergies: SMZ/TMP
Vitals: BP: 150/92 mm Hg P: 78 beats/min RR: 12 rpm Waist Circumference: 46 in Weight: 267 lb
Height: 5 ′ 6 ″ BMI: 43.1 kg/m 2
Despite improvements in the past six weeks due to lifestyle changes and exercise, drug therapy
is to be started for JR's diabetes. Which drug therapy would be the best for JR to trial?
Discuss your opinion of JR's lipid management.
Discuss your opinion of JR's blood pressure management.
Metformin is the drug of choice recommended for most patients with diabetes in addition to
lifestyle modifications assuming no contraindications or intolerabilities are present upon
evaluation. Metformin has also shown to provide positive weight neutral/loss effects in obese
,patients. It is crucial to know the renal status of patients commencing metformin therapy to
limit the risk of lactic acidosis (JR is without contraindication).
Since his entry A1C is >7.5%, dual therapy is indicated. There are several potential choices. The
second step can be a dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor, it can be a glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1)
receptor agonist, it can be a TZD, it can be a sulfonylurea agent, it can be a SGLT2 inhibitor, or it
could be basal insulin. Anything next can be tried depending on what suits the circumstance
DPP4 inhibitors are weight neutral bet relatively benign side effect profile. Sitagliptin has been
associated with case reports of pancreatitis, so this specific agent should be avoided. $$$
GLP-1 analog and has data to support an A1C reduction necessary to gain glycemic control and
may assist with weight loss goals for this patient. New information suggests these agents may
provide benefits in those with ASCVD. JR has a past history of pancreatitis and GLP-1 analogs are
not recommended due to this contraindication
TZDs have data to support an A1C reduction necessary to gain glycemic control, but are
associated with weight gain, negative effects on lipids and increased risk of fracture. Until
recently, TZDs have also been linked to increased CV events and use has fallen out of favor
Sulfonylureas provide excellent A1C lowering, but are also associated with weight gain. They
also have the potential to cause hypoglycemia, so patient education is crucial. Because of his
allergies to "sulfa", use would be contraindicated
SGLT2 inhibitors have data to support an A1C reduction necessary to gain glycemic control. In
addition, they are associated with weight loss and blood pressure lowering. New information
demonstrates these agents may be beneficial in those with ASCVD, heart failure and / or CKD.
They are also associated with dyslipidemias as well. Prior to starting therapy, renal function and
electrolytes would have to be assessed. $$$
Based on the ASCVD recommendations (which are now paralleled by the 2015 ADA
recommendations), all patients with type I or II DM ages 40-75 should be on a moderate
intensity statin. If the patients 10 years ASCVD risk is greater than 7.5%, a high intensity statin
can be considered. Since all information needed to perform the estimate is not present, we can
assume JR need at least moderate intensity statin. ACCE/ACE guidelines still resemble those of
ATPIII. Even so, the recommendation is for a statin regardless of LDL-C in diabetics over 40 with
at least 1 risk factor of ASCVD.
Options: atorvastatin 10mg, rosuvastatin 10, simvastatin 20-40, pravastatin 40, lovastatin 40,
fluvastatin 40.
, An angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor and considered to be a drug of choice for renal
protection in patients with diabetes. ACEi and ARBs have demonstrated a reduction in renal
progression to overt proteinuria. African Americans may not see the maximum effect of blood
pressure lowering with ACEi due to a decreased amount of renin. Combination therapy with a
thiazide would be a reasonable add on
A patient with type 1 diabetes reports taking propranolol for hypertension. What concern does
this information present for the provider?
A patient with Type 1 DM is insulin dependent for glucose control and at high risk for
hypoglycemic episodes. Propanolol causes prolonged hypoglycemic episodes. Needs to switch
to ACE or ARB.
A provider teaches a patient who has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism about a new
prescription for levothyroxine. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further
teaching?
a. "I should not take heartburn medication without consulting my provider first."
b. "I should report insomnia, tremors, and an increased heart rate to my provider."
c. "If I take a multivitamin with iron, I should take it 4 hours after the levothyroxine."
d. "If I take calcium supplements, I may need to decrease my dose of levothyroxine."
D. Calcium may reduce levothyroxine absorption. Further education is needed if the patient
feels she can take half of a prescribed medication.
MC has undiagnosed multiple gastric ulcers. Shortly after consuming a large meal and alcohol
he experiences significant GI distress. He takes an OTC heartburn remedy. Within a minute or
two he develops what he will later describe as "belching, nausea and a bad bloated feeling".
Several of the ulcers began to bleed and he becomes profoundly hypotensive from the blood
