ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam
Official Practice Exam Actual Exam
2026/2027 with Detailed Rationales |
Complete Exam-Style Questions | Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
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SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM CARE Q1 – Q17
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Question 1 of 100
A 28-year-old primigravida at 10 weeks gestation presents for her first prenatal visit. Her BMI
is 31, blood pressure is 128/82 mmHg, and she reports nausea and fatigue. She asks the
nurse what screening tests she should expect at this visit.
A. A glucose tolerance test, group B streptococcus culture, and nonstress test
B. A complete blood count, blood type and Rh factor, and urinalysis with culture ✓ CORRECT
C. A quad screen, amniocentesis, and fetal echocardiography
D. A contraction stress test, biophysical profile, and cordocentesis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The initial prenatal visit at 10 weeks includes baseline laboratory studies: a
complete blood count to screen for anemia, blood type and Rh factor to identify potential
isoimmunization risk, and a urinalysis with culture to detect asymptomatic bacteriuria. The
glucose tolerance test is not performed until 24–28 weeks gestation, and nonstress testing
begins much later in pregnancy. Group B streptococcus screening occurs at 35–37 weeks,
making option A a classic timing trap on ATI exams.
Question 2 of 100
A 34-year-old multigravida at 18 weeks gestation reports feeling her baby move for the first
time. She is concerned because her friend felt movement at 14 weeks. The nurse should
explain that quickening typically occurs between:
A. 8 and 12 weeks gestation
B. 12 and 16 weeks gestation
,C. 16 and 20 weeks gestation ✓ CORRECT
D. 24 and 28 weeks gestation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Quickening, the first perception of fetal movement by the mother, typically occurs
between 16 and 20 weeks gestation in nulliparous women and may be felt slightly earlier,
around 16 weeks, in multiparous women. A primigravida often does not recognize fetal
movement until closer to 20 weeks due to inexperience distinguishing it from intestinal gas.
Option B represents a common ATI distractor that confuses quickening with the timing of
audible fetal heart tones via Doppler.
Question 3 of 100
During a prenatal visit, a 22-year-old primigravida at 24 weeks gestation asks the nurse why
she needs to lie on her left side during sleep. The nurse's best response is:
A. "It prevents compression of the vena cava and improves uteroplacental perfusion." ✓
CORRECT
B. "It reduces the risk of developing gestational diabetes by improving insulin sensitivity."
C. "It prevents urinary tract infections by promoting complete bladder emptying."
D. "It minimizes the risk of preterm labor by reducing uterine irritability."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Left lateral positioning during the second and third trimesters prevents
compression of the inferior vena cava by the gravid uterus, which maintains venous return to
the heart and optimizes uteroplacental blood flow. Supine positioning after 20 weeks can
cause supine hypotensive syndrome, characterized by hypotension, pallor, and dizziness.
Option B is incorrect because sleep position has no established relationship to gestational
diabetes development; this distractor tests whether the nurse understands the hemodynamic
rationale for maternal positioning.
Question 4 of 100
A 30-year-old gravida 2, para 1 at 32 weeks gestation is diagnosed with placenta previa after
experiencing painless vaginal bleeding. The nurse reviews the plan of care with the patient.
Which instruction is most appropriate?
A. "You may resume sexual activity once the bleeding has stopped for 24 hours."
B. "Pelvic rest is required, which means no intercourse, tampons, or vaginal examinations." ✓
CORRECT
C. "You should perform daily kick counts and report fewer than 15 movements in 2 hours."
D. "You can return to work as long as you avoid lifting objects heavier than 25 pounds."
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Placenta previa requires absolute pelvic rest to prevent further placental
separation and bleeding; this includes abstaining from sexual intercourse, avoiding tampon
use, and prohibiting vaginal or rectal examinations. Any vaginal manipulation can trigger
catastrophic hemorrhage. Option A is dangerous because resuming sexual activity could
dislodge the placenta and cause life-threatening bleeding; ATI frequently tests whether nurses
understand that pelvic rest in placenta previa is maintained until delivery, not just until
bleeding subsides.
Question 5 of 100
A nurse is counseling a 26-year-old primigravida at 8 weeks gestation about nutrition. The
patient states she is following a vegan diet. Which nutrient should the nurse emphasize as
requiring supplementation?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin B12 ✓ CORRECT
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin K
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vitamin B12 is found almost exclusively in animal products, making
supplementation essential for vegan pregnant women to prevent maternal deficiency and
support fetal neurologic development. Folate, iron, and B12 are the critical nutrients of
concern in vegan pregnancies. Option C is a common distractor because while vitamin E is
an antioxidant, it is readily available in plant-based oils and nuts; ATI tests whether the nurse
can distinguish between nutrients that are abundant in plant foods versus those that are not.
Question 6 of 100
A 19-year-old primigravida at 28 weeks gestation is being monitored for preeclampsia after
her blood pressure increased from 118/74 to 146/92 at her last two visits. Her urine protein is
2+ on dipstick. Which assessment finding would most concern the nurse?
A. Mild ankle edema that resolves with elevation
B. A headache that is unrelieved by acetaminophen and accompanied by visual changes ✓
CORRECT
C. Heartburn that worsens after eating spicy foods
D. Increased urinary frequency compared to early pregnancy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A persistent headache unrelieved by analgesics with visual disturbances
(scotomata, blurred vision) indicates cerebral edema and is a warning sign of impending
eclampsia, requiring immediate provider notification and possible magnesium sulfate
initiation. These neurologic symptoms reflect severe features of preeclampsia. Option A
, describes physiologic dependent edema common in normal pregnancy; ATI frequently uses
this distractor to test whether the nurse can differentiate normal third-trimester findings from
pathologic preeclampsia warning signs.
Question 7 of 100
During a routine prenatal visit, a 25-year-old gravida 3, para 2 at 20 weeks gestation asks
when she will have an ultrasound to check for fetal anomalies. The nurse correctly responds
that the optimal timing for a detailed anatomy scan is:
A. Between 10 and 14 weeks gestation
B. Between 18 and 22 weeks gestation ✓ CORRECT
C. Between 24 and 28 weeks gestation
D. Between 32 and 36 weeks gestation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The detailed fetal anatomy ultrasound is optimally performed between 18 and 22
weeks gestation because fetal structures are sufficiently developed for visualization while
the fetus remains small enough to allow complete imaging in a single session. This timing
also allows for follow-up diagnostic testing if anomalies are detected. Option A describes the
first-trimester nuchal translucency screening window; ATI tests whether the nurse can
distinguish between the purposes and timing of different prenatal ultrasound examinations.
Question 8 of 100
A 32-year-old gravida 2, para 1 at 16 weeks gestation reports that her 3-year-old was recently
diagnosed with fifth disease (parvovirus B19). The patient is asymptomatic. What is the
nurse's priority action?
A. Reassure the patient that parvovirus poses no risk to the fetus
B. Notify the provider immediately to order maternal serologic testing ✓ CORRECT
C. Advise the patient to begin prophylactic acyclovir therapy
D. Schedule an emergency cesarean delivery to prevent fetal infection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Parvovirus B19 infection during pregnancy can cause fetal hydrops, severe anemia,
and stillbirth; asymptomatic maternal exposure requires serologic testing (IgM and IgG) to
determine immune status and the need for serial fetal surveillance. The risk of fetal
complications is highest between 9 and 20 weeks gestation, making this patient's timing
particularly concerning. Option A is dangerous because parvovirus does pose significant fetal
risk; ATI tests whether the nurse recognizes that not all childhood illnesses are benign in
pregnancy and that asymptomatic exposure still warrants evaluation.
Question 9 of 100
Official Practice Exam Actual Exam
2026/2027 with Detailed Rationales |
Complete Exam-Style Questions | Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
══════════════════════════════════════
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM CARE Q1 – Q17
══════════════════════════════════════
Question 1 of 100
A 28-year-old primigravida at 10 weeks gestation presents for her first prenatal visit. Her BMI
is 31, blood pressure is 128/82 mmHg, and she reports nausea and fatigue. She asks the
nurse what screening tests she should expect at this visit.
A. A glucose tolerance test, group B streptococcus culture, and nonstress test
B. A complete blood count, blood type and Rh factor, and urinalysis with culture ✓ CORRECT
C. A quad screen, amniocentesis, and fetal echocardiography
D. A contraction stress test, biophysical profile, and cordocentesis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The initial prenatal visit at 10 weeks includes baseline laboratory studies: a
complete blood count to screen for anemia, blood type and Rh factor to identify potential
isoimmunization risk, and a urinalysis with culture to detect asymptomatic bacteriuria. The
glucose tolerance test is not performed until 24–28 weeks gestation, and nonstress testing
begins much later in pregnancy. Group B streptococcus screening occurs at 35–37 weeks,
making option A a classic timing trap on ATI exams.
Question 2 of 100
A 34-year-old multigravida at 18 weeks gestation reports feeling her baby move for the first
time. She is concerned because her friend felt movement at 14 weeks. The nurse should
explain that quickening typically occurs between:
A. 8 and 12 weeks gestation
B. 12 and 16 weeks gestation
,C. 16 and 20 weeks gestation ✓ CORRECT
D. 24 and 28 weeks gestation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Quickening, the first perception of fetal movement by the mother, typically occurs
between 16 and 20 weeks gestation in nulliparous women and may be felt slightly earlier,
around 16 weeks, in multiparous women. A primigravida often does not recognize fetal
movement until closer to 20 weeks due to inexperience distinguishing it from intestinal gas.
Option B represents a common ATI distractor that confuses quickening with the timing of
audible fetal heart tones via Doppler.
Question 3 of 100
During a prenatal visit, a 22-year-old primigravida at 24 weeks gestation asks the nurse why
she needs to lie on her left side during sleep. The nurse's best response is:
A. "It prevents compression of the vena cava and improves uteroplacental perfusion." ✓
CORRECT
B. "It reduces the risk of developing gestational diabetes by improving insulin sensitivity."
C. "It prevents urinary tract infections by promoting complete bladder emptying."
D. "It minimizes the risk of preterm labor by reducing uterine irritability."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Left lateral positioning during the second and third trimesters prevents
compression of the inferior vena cava by the gravid uterus, which maintains venous return to
the heart and optimizes uteroplacental blood flow. Supine positioning after 20 weeks can
cause supine hypotensive syndrome, characterized by hypotension, pallor, and dizziness.
Option B is incorrect because sleep position has no established relationship to gestational
diabetes development; this distractor tests whether the nurse understands the hemodynamic
rationale for maternal positioning.
Question 4 of 100
A 30-year-old gravida 2, para 1 at 32 weeks gestation is diagnosed with placenta previa after
experiencing painless vaginal bleeding. The nurse reviews the plan of care with the patient.
Which instruction is most appropriate?
A. "You may resume sexual activity once the bleeding has stopped for 24 hours."
B. "Pelvic rest is required, which means no intercourse, tampons, or vaginal examinations." ✓
CORRECT
C. "You should perform daily kick counts and report fewer than 15 movements in 2 hours."
D. "You can return to work as long as you avoid lifting objects heavier than 25 pounds."
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Placenta previa requires absolute pelvic rest to prevent further placental
separation and bleeding; this includes abstaining from sexual intercourse, avoiding tampon
use, and prohibiting vaginal or rectal examinations. Any vaginal manipulation can trigger
catastrophic hemorrhage. Option A is dangerous because resuming sexual activity could
dislodge the placenta and cause life-threatening bleeding; ATI frequently tests whether nurses
understand that pelvic rest in placenta previa is maintained until delivery, not just until
bleeding subsides.
Question 5 of 100
A nurse is counseling a 26-year-old primigravida at 8 weeks gestation about nutrition. The
patient states she is following a vegan diet. Which nutrient should the nurse emphasize as
requiring supplementation?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin B12 ✓ CORRECT
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin K
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vitamin B12 is found almost exclusively in animal products, making
supplementation essential for vegan pregnant women to prevent maternal deficiency and
support fetal neurologic development. Folate, iron, and B12 are the critical nutrients of
concern in vegan pregnancies. Option C is a common distractor because while vitamin E is
an antioxidant, it is readily available in plant-based oils and nuts; ATI tests whether the nurse
can distinguish between nutrients that are abundant in plant foods versus those that are not.
Question 6 of 100
A 19-year-old primigravida at 28 weeks gestation is being monitored for preeclampsia after
her blood pressure increased from 118/74 to 146/92 at her last two visits. Her urine protein is
2+ on dipstick. Which assessment finding would most concern the nurse?
A. Mild ankle edema that resolves with elevation
B. A headache that is unrelieved by acetaminophen and accompanied by visual changes ✓
CORRECT
C. Heartburn that worsens after eating spicy foods
D. Increased urinary frequency compared to early pregnancy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A persistent headache unrelieved by analgesics with visual disturbances
(scotomata, blurred vision) indicates cerebral edema and is a warning sign of impending
eclampsia, requiring immediate provider notification and possible magnesium sulfate
initiation. These neurologic symptoms reflect severe features of preeclampsia. Option A
, describes physiologic dependent edema common in normal pregnancy; ATI frequently uses
this distractor to test whether the nurse can differentiate normal third-trimester findings from
pathologic preeclampsia warning signs.
Question 7 of 100
During a routine prenatal visit, a 25-year-old gravida 3, para 2 at 20 weeks gestation asks
when she will have an ultrasound to check for fetal anomalies. The nurse correctly responds
that the optimal timing for a detailed anatomy scan is:
A. Between 10 and 14 weeks gestation
B. Between 18 and 22 weeks gestation ✓ CORRECT
C. Between 24 and 28 weeks gestation
D. Between 32 and 36 weeks gestation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The detailed fetal anatomy ultrasound is optimally performed between 18 and 22
weeks gestation because fetal structures are sufficiently developed for visualization while
the fetus remains small enough to allow complete imaging in a single session. This timing
also allows for follow-up diagnostic testing if anomalies are detected. Option A describes the
first-trimester nuchal translucency screening window; ATI tests whether the nurse can
distinguish between the purposes and timing of different prenatal ultrasound examinations.
Question 8 of 100
A 32-year-old gravida 2, para 1 at 16 weeks gestation reports that her 3-year-old was recently
diagnosed with fifth disease (parvovirus B19). The patient is asymptomatic. What is the
nurse's priority action?
A. Reassure the patient that parvovirus poses no risk to the fetus
B. Notify the provider immediately to order maternal serologic testing ✓ CORRECT
C. Advise the patient to begin prophylactic acyclovir therapy
D. Schedule an emergency cesarean delivery to prevent fetal infection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Parvovirus B19 infection during pregnancy can cause fetal hydrops, severe anemia,
and stillbirth; asymptomatic maternal exposure requires serologic testing (IgM and IgG) to
determine immune status and the need for serial fetal surveillance. The risk of fetal
complications is highest between 9 and 20 weeks gestation, making this patient's timing
particularly concerning. Option A is dangerous because parvovirus does pose significant fetal
risk; ATI tests whether the nurse recognizes that not all childhood illnesses are benign in
pregnancy and that asymptomatic exposure still warrants evaluation.
Question 9 of 100
