FAMILY NURSE PRACTITIONER (FNP) CERTIFICATION REVIEW | PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE,
ETHICS, LEGAL & SCOPE OF PRACTICE | 100% VERIFIED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS | LATEST
2026/2027 VERSION
1. Under most state Nurse Practice Acts, an FNP practicing in a “restricted
practice” state must:
A. Maintain a collaborative or supervisory agreement with a physician
B. Practice independently without physician involvement
C. Refer all patients to a physician for diagnosis
D. Obtain a separate license for prescribing
ANSWER : A
2. The legal doctrine that holds an individual NP accountable for their own
actions within their scope of practice is called:
A. Respondeat superior
B. Personal liability
C. Vicarious liability
D. Informed consent
ANSWER : B
3. Which document outlines an NP's legal authority to diagnose, treat, and
prescribe in a given state?
A. Collaborative practice agreement
B. State Nurse Practice Act
C. National certification board bylaws
D. DEA registration certificate
ANSWER : B
4. An NP who fails to disclose the risks of a procedure before obtaining
consent may be liable for:
A. Battery
B. Negligence
C. Lack of informed consent
, D. Breach of confidentiality
ANSWER : C
5. Under HIPAA, protected health information may be disclosed without
patient authorization for:
A. Marketing purposes
B. Treatment, payment, and healthcare operations
C. Research without IRB approval
D. Employer requests
ANSWER : B
6. The Controlled Substances Act classifies medications with the highest
potential for abuse and no accepted medical use as:
A. Schedule II
B. Schedule III
C. Schedule IV
D. Schedule I
ANSWER : D
7. Which of the following is the best example of nonmaleficence in NP
practice?
A. Prescribing the most expensive medication available
B. Avoiding unnecessary testing that could harm the patient
C. Always honoring patient autonomy
D. Distributing resources fairly
ANSWER : B
8. The mature minor exception to parental consent most commonly applies
to:
A. Routine well-child visits
B. Reproductive health, substance abuse, and mental health services
C. Elective cosmetic procedures
D. Vaccination records only
ANSWER : B
9. Establishing malpractice requires all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Duty
B. Breach of duty
C. Causation and damages
, D. Patient satisfaction
ANSWER : D
10. Which best describes “full practice authority” for nurse practitioners?
A. NPs may evaluate, diagnose, order tests, and prescribe independently
B. NPs require a collaborating physician for all prescriptions
C. NPs must have physician co-signature on every chart
D. NPs may only practice in hospital settings
ANSWER : A
, Health History & Physical Assessment
11. The most reliable indicator of pain in a nonverbal or cognitively impaired
patient is:
A. Vital sign changes alone
B. Behavioral cues and facial expression
C. Self-report
D. Laboratory markers
ANSWER : B
12. A positive Murphy's sign on abdominal exam is most associated with:
A. Appendicitis
B. Cholecystitis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Peptic ulcer disease
ANSWER : B
13. Egophony heard on lung auscultation is most suggestive of:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Pleural effusion
C. Lobar consolidation
D. Bronchospasm
ANSWER : C
14. The McMurray test is used to assess for:
A. Anterior cruciate ligament tear
B. Meniscal tear
C. Rotator cuff tear
D. Patellar subluxation
ANSWER : B
15. A widened pulse pressure is most commonly associated with:
A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Mitral stenosis
C. Tricuspid stenosis
D. Pulmonic stenosis
ANSWER : A
16. Asking a patient to shrug the shoulders against resistance primarily tests:
ETHICS, LEGAL & SCOPE OF PRACTICE | 100% VERIFIED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS | LATEST
2026/2027 VERSION
1. Under most state Nurse Practice Acts, an FNP practicing in a “restricted
practice” state must:
A. Maintain a collaborative or supervisory agreement with a physician
B. Practice independently without physician involvement
C. Refer all patients to a physician for diagnosis
D. Obtain a separate license for prescribing
ANSWER : A
2. The legal doctrine that holds an individual NP accountable for their own
actions within their scope of practice is called:
A. Respondeat superior
B. Personal liability
C. Vicarious liability
D. Informed consent
ANSWER : B
3. Which document outlines an NP's legal authority to diagnose, treat, and
prescribe in a given state?
A. Collaborative practice agreement
B. State Nurse Practice Act
C. National certification board bylaws
D. DEA registration certificate
ANSWER : B
4. An NP who fails to disclose the risks of a procedure before obtaining
consent may be liable for:
A. Battery
B. Negligence
C. Lack of informed consent
, D. Breach of confidentiality
ANSWER : C
5. Under HIPAA, protected health information may be disclosed without
patient authorization for:
A. Marketing purposes
B. Treatment, payment, and healthcare operations
C. Research without IRB approval
D. Employer requests
ANSWER : B
6. The Controlled Substances Act classifies medications with the highest
potential for abuse and no accepted medical use as:
A. Schedule II
B. Schedule III
C. Schedule IV
D. Schedule I
ANSWER : D
7. Which of the following is the best example of nonmaleficence in NP
practice?
A. Prescribing the most expensive medication available
B. Avoiding unnecessary testing that could harm the patient
C. Always honoring patient autonomy
D. Distributing resources fairly
ANSWER : B
8. The mature minor exception to parental consent most commonly applies
to:
A. Routine well-child visits
B. Reproductive health, substance abuse, and mental health services
C. Elective cosmetic procedures
D. Vaccination records only
ANSWER : B
9. Establishing malpractice requires all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Duty
B. Breach of duty
C. Causation and damages
, D. Patient satisfaction
ANSWER : D
10. Which best describes “full practice authority” for nurse practitioners?
A. NPs may evaluate, diagnose, order tests, and prescribe independently
B. NPs require a collaborating physician for all prescriptions
C. NPs must have physician co-signature on every chart
D. NPs may only practice in hospital settings
ANSWER : A
, Health History & Physical Assessment
11. The most reliable indicator of pain in a nonverbal or cognitively impaired
patient is:
A. Vital sign changes alone
B. Behavioral cues and facial expression
C. Self-report
D. Laboratory markers
ANSWER : B
12. A positive Murphy's sign on abdominal exam is most associated with:
A. Appendicitis
B. Cholecystitis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Peptic ulcer disease
ANSWER : B
13. Egophony heard on lung auscultation is most suggestive of:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Pleural effusion
C. Lobar consolidation
D. Bronchospasm
ANSWER : C
14. The McMurray test is used to assess for:
A. Anterior cruciate ligament tear
B. Meniscal tear
C. Rotator cuff tear
D. Patellar subluxation
ANSWER : B
15. A widened pulse pressure is most commonly associated with:
A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Mitral stenosis
C. Tricuspid stenosis
D. Pulmonic stenosis
ANSWER : A
16. Asking a patient to shrug the shoulders against resistance primarily tests:
