CPN 100+ Test Exam Review Questions with all Answers
verified for accuracy Updated 2026/2027
A 14-year-old sustained a blow to the medial forearm. He has a fracture that is
incomplete and does not extend all the way through the ulna. What is this type of
fracture?
A. Buckle fracture.
B. Greenstick fracture.
C. Bend fracture.
D. Open fracture. - correct answer B: An incomplete fracture that does not fully extend
through a bone is a greenstick fracture. A buckle fracture is common in children and
involves an incomplete fracture with buckling of bone on one side only. Bend fractures
involve bending of the soft bone without breaking. Open fractures break through the
skin
Duchenne's muscular dystrophy is the most common form of muscular dystrophy and
causes progressive degeneration and weakness of the skeletal muscles. At what age is
Duchenne's muscular dystrophy usually first evident?
A. 6 months to 1 year.
B. 12 to 15 years.
C. 9 to 12 years.
D. 3 to 5 years. - correct answer D: Muscular dystrophy is usually first evident at age 3
to 5 and observed with delays in motor development and weakness in the pelvic girdle.
Children may have trouble standing and may fall easily. Calf muscles may begin to
enlarge
Which type of seizure is characterized by a sudden loss of muscle tone and then a
postictal period of confusion?
A. Tonic seizures.
B. Clonic seizures.
C. Atonic seizures.
D. Absence seizures. - correct answer C: Atonic seizures are characterized by a loss
of muscle tone and often a fall and then a period of confusion from a postictal state.
,Tonic seizures include muscle twitching and changes in consciousness. Clonic seizures
are generalized seizures often accompanied by loss of consciousness. Absence
seizures cause a lack of consciousness
What should women of childbearing age consume in the preconceptual period to
decrease their risk of neural tube defects in their children?
A. Iron.
B. Vitamin B12.
C. Magnesium.
D. Folic acid. - correct answer D: Additional folic acid (0.4 mg per day) is
recommended to decrease the risk of neural tube defects during pregnancy. All women
of childbearing age should have counseling regarding the importance of folic acid.
The pituitary gland regulates many other components of the endocrine system and is
composed of the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis) and posterior pituitary
(neurohypophysis). Which of the following is NOT secreted by the anterior pituitary?
A. Growth hormone.
B. Thyroid stimulating hormone.
C. Oxytocin
D. Prolactin. - correct answer C: Oxytocin as well as antidiuretic hormone are the two
secretions of the posterior pituitary gland. The anterior pituitary gland produces growth
hormone, thyroid stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, follicle
stimulating hormone, betA:endorphin, and luteinizing hormone
The islets of Langerhans in the pancreas secrete several hormones that regulate body
functions. Which of the following is NOT a hormone secreted by the islets of
Langerhans?
A. Aldosterone.
B. Insulin.
C. Glucagon.
D. Somatostatin. - correct answer A: Aldosterone is secreted by the adrenal gland.
Insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin are all secretions by the islets of Langerhans.
,Following surgery for a brain tumor, a 6-year-old female exhibits symptoms of syndrome
of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following is NOT a classic
symptom of SIADH?
A. Fluid retention.
B. Weight loss.
C. Weakness.
D. Decreased urinary output. - correct answer B: Weight gain, not weight loss is a
cardinal sign of SIADH because of fluid retention and decreased urinary output caused
by the hyponatremia resulting from increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone.
Weakness is an additional sign of SIADH.
What is the most common type of cancer in childhood?
A. Kidney tumors.
B. Brain tumors.
C. Lymphomas.
D. Leukemias. - correct answer D: Leukemias remain the most common type of cancer
in childhood. Brain tumors are the most common SOLID tumors in children. Lymphomas
are the third most common type of tumor. The most common type of kidney tumor is
Wilm's tumor.
During resuscitation of a 9-month-old male, what is the proper ratio of chest
compressions to breaths?
A. 1:1
B. 5:1
C. 10:2
D. 30:2 - correct answer D: The proper ratio of chest compressions to breaths in a
child of 9 months is 30:2. Compressions should be done rapidly to a count of 30
followed by 2 breaths. Brain damage can occur within 4 minutes and death within 8
minutes if the brain is deprived of oxygen.
Which of the following characteristics is NOT part of the Apgar scoring method for
assessment of newborns?
A. Heart rate.
, B. Respiratory effort.
C. Skin color.
D. Eye tracking - correct answer D: Eye tracking is not a component as the child is not
able to focus well enough to track at birth. Heart rate, color, muscle tone, reflex
irritability, and respiratory effort are the components of the Apgar scoring system.
A 2-year-old male is found to be in ventricular fibrillation. What is the proper initial
voltage for defibrillation?
A. 20 J/kg.
B. 15 J/kg.
C. 10 J/kg.
D. 2 J/kg. - correct answer D: The proper initial voltage for defibrillation of a 2-year-old
child is 2 J/kg. If unsuccessful, the next shock is done with 2 to 4 J/kg and then 4 J/kg
In the treatment of ventricular fibrillation in children what is the initial medication used if
defibrillation is not effective?
A. Amiodarone.
B. Magnesium.
C. Epinephrine.
D. Lidocaine. - correct answer C: Epinephrine is the initial drug used in the treatment
of ventricular fibrillation if defibrillation is not successful. Each dose of epinephrine is
usually followed by an attempt at defibrillation. If epinephrine and defibrillation are
ineffective, then an antiarrhythmic, such as amiodarone or lidocaine, is used.
Magnesium sulfate is indicated with torsades de pointes (a variant form of VF).
In cases of inability to obtain peripheral IV access, an interosseous line (IO) can be
placed to infuse medications and fluid. Blood can also be aspirated and sent to the lab
for analysis. Which of the following lab tests can NOT be done reliably from an IO
sample?
A. White blood cell count.
B. Type and cross.
C. Electrolytes.
verified for accuracy Updated 2026/2027
A 14-year-old sustained a blow to the medial forearm. He has a fracture that is
incomplete and does not extend all the way through the ulna. What is this type of
fracture?
A. Buckle fracture.
B. Greenstick fracture.
C. Bend fracture.
D. Open fracture. - correct answer B: An incomplete fracture that does not fully extend
through a bone is a greenstick fracture. A buckle fracture is common in children and
involves an incomplete fracture with buckling of bone on one side only. Bend fractures
involve bending of the soft bone without breaking. Open fractures break through the
skin
Duchenne's muscular dystrophy is the most common form of muscular dystrophy and
causes progressive degeneration and weakness of the skeletal muscles. At what age is
Duchenne's muscular dystrophy usually first evident?
A. 6 months to 1 year.
B. 12 to 15 years.
C. 9 to 12 years.
D. 3 to 5 years. - correct answer D: Muscular dystrophy is usually first evident at age 3
to 5 and observed with delays in motor development and weakness in the pelvic girdle.
Children may have trouble standing and may fall easily. Calf muscles may begin to
enlarge
Which type of seizure is characterized by a sudden loss of muscle tone and then a
postictal period of confusion?
A. Tonic seizures.
B. Clonic seizures.
C. Atonic seizures.
D. Absence seizures. - correct answer C: Atonic seizures are characterized by a loss
of muscle tone and often a fall and then a period of confusion from a postictal state.
,Tonic seizures include muscle twitching and changes in consciousness. Clonic seizures
are generalized seizures often accompanied by loss of consciousness. Absence
seizures cause a lack of consciousness
What should women of childbearing age consume in the preconceptual period to
decrease their risk of neural tube defects in their children?
A. Iron.
B. Vitamin B12.
C. Magnesium.
D. Folic acid. - correct answer D: Additional folic acid (0.4 mg per day) is
recommended to decrease the risk of neural tube defects during pregnancy. All women
of childbearing age should have counseling regarding the importance of folic acid.
The pituitary gland regulates many other components of the endocrine system and is
composed of the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis) and posterior pituitary
(neurohypophysis). Which of the following is NOT secreted by the anterior pituitary?
A. Growth hormone.
B. Thyroid stimulating hormone.
C. Oxytocin
D. Prolactin. - correct answer C: Oxytocin as well as antidiuretic hormone are the two
secretions of the posterior pituitary gland. The anterior pituitary gland produces growth
hormone, thyroid stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, follicle
stimulating hormone, betA:endorphin, and luteinizing hormone
The islets of Langerhans in the pancreas secrete several hormones that regulate body
functions. Which of the following is NOT a hormone secreted by the islets of
Langerhans?
A. Aldosterone.
B. Insulin.
C. Glucagon.
D. Somatostatin. - correct answer A: Aldosterone is secreted by the adrenal gland.
Insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin are all secretions by the islets of Langerhans.
,Following surgery for a brain tumor, a 6-year-old female exhibits symptoms of syndrome
of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following is NOT a classic
symptom of SIADH?
A. Fluid retention.
B. Weight loss.
C. Weakness.
D. Decreased urinary output. - correct answer B: Weight gain, not weight loss is a
cardinal sign of SIADH because of fluid retention and decreased urinary output caused
by the hyponatremia resulting from increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone.
Weakness is an additional sign of SIADH.
What is the most common type of cancer in childhood?
A. Kidney tumors.
B. Brain tumors.
C. Lymphomas.
D. Leukemias. - correct answer D: Leukemias remain the most common type of cancer
in childhood. Brain tumors are the most common SOLID tumors in children. Lymphomas
are the third most common type of tumor. The most common type of kidney tumor is
Wilm's tumor.
During resuscitation of a 9-month-old male, what is the proper ratio of chest
compressions to breaths?
A. 1:1
B. 5:1
C. 10:2
D. 30:2 - correct answer D: The proper ratio of chest compressions to breaths in a
child of 9 months is 30:2. Compressions should be done rapidly to a count of 30
followed by 2 breaths. Brain damage can occur within 4 minutes and death within 8
minutes if the brain is deprived of oxygen.
Which of the following characteristics is NOT part of the Apgar scoring method for
assessment of newborns?
A. Heart rate.
, B. Respiratory effort.
C. Skin color.
D. Eye tracking - correct answer D: Eye tracking is not a component as the child is not
able to focus well enough to track at birth. Heart rate, color, muscle tone, reflex
irritability, and respiratory effort are the components of the Apgar scoring system.
A 2-year-old male is found to be in ventricular fibrillation. What is the proper initial
voltage for defibrillation?
A. 20 J/kg.
B. 15 J/kg.
C. 10 J/kg.
D. 2 J/kg. - correct answer D: The proper initial voltage for defibrillation of a 2-year-old
child is 2 J/kg. If unsuccessful, the next shock is done with 2 to 4 J/kg and then 4 J/kg
In the treatment of ventricular fibrillation in children what is the initial medication used if
defibrillation is not effective?
A. Amiodarone.
B. Magnesium.
C. Epinephrine.
D. Lidocaine. - correct answer C: Epinephrine is the initial drug used in the treatment
of ventricular fibrillation if defibrillation is not successful. Each dose of epinephrine is
usually followed by an attempt at defibrillation. If epinephrine and defibrillation are
ineffective, then an antiarrhythmic, such as amiodarone or lidocaine, is used.
Magnesium sulfate is indicated with torsades de pointes (a variant form of VF).
In cases of inability to obtain peripheral IV access, an interosseous line (IO) can be
placed to infuse medications and fluid. Blood can also be aspirated and sent to the lab
for analysis. Which of the following lab tests can NOT be done reliably from an IO
sample?
A. White blood cell count.
B. Type and cross.
C. Electrolytes.
