MDC 3 Final Exam 2026 | Rasmussen University | Complete Study
Guide & Practice Test | Verified Questions & Answers
Prepare for the Rasmussen University MDC 3 Final Exam with this comprehensive practice test
featuring verified questions, answers, and detailed explanations. This study guide covers
essential concepts commonly taught in Medical/Surgical Nursing and advanced patient care
courses, including clinical judgment, pharmacology, disease management, patient assessment,
safety, and evidence-based nursing interventions. Designed to reinforce critical nursing
knowledge and improve exam readiness, the material helps students build confidence through
realistic exam-style questions. Ideal for Rasmussen University nursing students seeking a reliable
resource to prepare for and successfully pass the MDC 3 Final Examination.
assessments.
Question
A nurse is reviewing the morning laboratory results for a client diagnosed with acute
leukemia. The client’s platelet count is 22,000/mm³. Which clinical intervention should
the nurse immediately implement?
A) Place the client on a strict liquid diet.
B) Initiate a protective neutropenic isolation protocol.
C) Implement comprehensive bleeding precautions and fall risks.
D) Prepare the client for an autologous bone marrow transplant.
Answer: C) Implement comprehensive bleeding precautions and fall risks.
Rationale: A platelet count below 50,000/mm³ places the client at a severe risk for
spontaneous bleeding. The nurse must implement bleeding precautions, which include
using soft toothbrushes, avoiding intramuscular injections, using electric shavers, and
mitigating fall risks to prevent intracranial hemorrhage.
Question
A client presents to the emergency department reporting a steady, gnawing, and tearing
abdominal pain that radiates directly to the back. Upon assessment, the nurse notes a
pulsating mass in the periumbilical area. Which action is strictly contraindicated for this
client?
A) Obtaining a stat computer tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen.
B) Administering deep palpation over the abdominal mass.
C) Monitoring peripheral pulses in both lower extremities.
D) Maintaining the client on a strict nothing-by-mouth (NPO) status.
,Answer: B) Administering deep palpation over the abdominal mass.
Rationale: The client's presentation is highly indicative of an abdominal aortic aneurysm
(AAA). Deep palpation over a pulsating abdominal mass is strictly contraindicated
because it can cause a catastrophic rupture of the aneurysm, leading to rapid
exsanguination.
Question
A nurse is analyzing the arterial blood gas (ABG) results of a client who has been
vomiting continuously for the past 48 hours. The values are: pH 7.49, PaCO₂ 40 mm
Hg, and HCO₃ 32 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these findings?
A) Uncompensated Respiratory Alkalosis
B) Uncompensated Metabolic Acidosis
C) Uncompensated Metabolic Alkalosis
D) Fully Compensated Respiratory Acidosis
Answer: C) Uncompensated Metabolic Alkalosis
Rationale: The pH is elevated (>7.45), indicating alkalosis. The HCO₃ is elevated (>26
mEq/L), which aligns with the alkalotic pH and points to a metabolic origin. The PaCO₂
is within the normal range (35–45 mm Hg), meaning no respiratory compensation has
occurred.
Question
A client is admitted to the progressive care unit with an acute exacerbation of left-sided
heart failure. Which clinical assessment finding should the nurse expect to observe?
A) Dependent pitting edema in the lower extremities
B) Jugular venous distension (JVD) at a 45-degree angle
C) Bilateral crackles auscultated in the lung bases
D) Splenomegaly and right upper quadrant tenderness
Answer: C) Bilateral crackles auscultated in the lung bases
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes blood to back up into the pulmonary
circulation, leading to pulmonary congestion. This presents as respiratory symptoms like
crackles, dyspnea, and orthopnea. Right-sided heart failure causes systemic venous
congestion (JVD, dependent edema, splenomegaly).
,Question
A nurse receives a shift report on four clients. Using the priority-setting framework,
which client should the nurse assess first?
A) A client with chronic atrial fibrillation whose heart rate is stable at 88 beats per
minute.
B) A client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm who suddenly reports severe, tearing
flank pain.
C) A client with polycythemia vera whose hemoglobin level is stable at 17.2 g/dL.
D) A client with leukemia who has an oral temperature of 99.1°F (37.3°C).
Answer: B) A client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm who suddenly reports
severe, tearing flank pain.
Rationale: Sudden, severe, tearing flank or back pain in a client with a known AAA
indicates an imminent or active aneurysm rupture. This is a life-threatening emergency
requiring immediate surgical intervention.
Question
A client undergoing chemotherapy for lung cancer presents with a white blood cell
(WBC) count of 1,200/mm³. Which protective intervention must the nurse enforce?
A) Ensure the client wears an N95 respirator at all times in the room.
B) Prohibit fresh flowers, raw fruits, and unpasteurized foods in the room.
C) Mandate standard contact precautions with a plastic fluid-resistant gown.
D) Keep the client's room door wide open to monitor breathing patterns.
Answer: B) Prohibit fresh flowers, raw fruits, and unpasteurized foods in the
room.
Rationale: The client has severe neutropenia (WBC < 4,000/mm³). Neutropenic
precautions are required to protect the client from environmental pathogens. Fresh
flowers, standing water, and raw or unpeeled fruits carry bacteria and fungi that can
cause fatal opportunistic infections.
Question
, A nurse is preparing a discharge educational plan for a client who recently received a
mechanical aortic valve replacement. Which statement by the client indicates a correct
understanding of long-term therapy?
A) "I will only need to take blood thinners for the first six months after surgery."
B) "I must take lifelong Warfarin therapy and get my INR checked regularly."
C) "I should switch to a diet rich in green, leafy vegetables to help with healing."
D) "I can use a firm bristle toothbrush to keep my teeth completely clean."
Answer: B) "I must take lifelong Warfarin therapy and get my INR checked
regularly."
Rationale: Mechanical heart valves have a high risk of thromboembolism, requiring
lifelong anticoagulation with Warfarin. Clients must monitor their INR and maintain a
consistent intake of Vitamin K (green leafy vegetables) to prevent subtherapeutic or
toxic drug levels.
Question
A client is admitted to the emergency department presenting with crushing substernal
chest pain that radiates to the left jaw and arm. While initiating the acute coronary
syndrome protocol, which diagnostic lab test should the nurse anticipate as the most
specific indicator of myocardial injury?
A) Creatine Kinase (CK)
B) Myoglobin
C) Troponin I
D) Brain Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)
Answer: C) Troponin I
Rationale: Troponin I is highly specific to cardiac muscle tissue and elevates within 3 to
4 hours of a myocardial infarction. It remains elevated for up to 10 to 14 days, making it
the gold standard marker for diagnosing an acute MI.
Question
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with polycythemia vera. Which clinical
intervention should the nurse implement to reduce the client’s risk of developing a
thromboembolism?
A) Restrict total oral fluid intake to less than 1,000 mL per day.
B) Keep the client on strict bed rest with the legs dependent.
Guide & Practice Test | Verified Questions & Answers
Prepare for the Rasmussen University MDC 3 Final Exam with this comprehensive practice test
featuring verified questions, answers, and detailed explanations. This study guide covers
essential concepts commonly taught in Medical/Surgical Nursing and advanced patient care
courses, including clinical judgment, pharmacology, disease management, patient assessment,
safety, and evidence-based nursing interventions. Designed to reinforce critical nursing
knowledge and improve exam readiness, the material helps students build confidence through
realistic exam-style questions. Ideal for Rasmussen University nursing students seeking a reliable
resource to prepare for and successfully pass the MDC 3 Final Examination.
assessments.
Question
A nurse is reviewing the morning laboratory results for a client diagnosed with acute
leukemia. The client’s platelet count is 22,000/mm³. Which clinical intervention should
the nurse immediately implement?
A) Place the client on a strict liquid diet.
B) Initiate a protective neutropenic isolation protocol.
C) Implement comprehensive bleeding precautions and fall risks.
D) Prepare the client for an autologous bone marrow transplant.
Answer: C) Implement comprehensive bleeding precautions and fall risks.
Rationale: A platelet count below 50,000/mm³ places the client at a severe risk for
spontaneous bleeding. The nurse must implement bleeding precautions, which include
using soft toothbrushes, avoiding intramuscular injections, using electric shavers, and
mitigating fall risks to prevent intracranial hemorrhage.
Question
A client presents to the emergency department reporting a steady, gnawing, and tearing
abdominal pain that radiates directly to the back. Upon assessment, the nurse notes a
pulsating mass in the periumbilical area. Which action is strictly contraindicated for this
client?
A) Obtaining a stat computer tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen.
B) Administering deep palpation over the abdominal mass.
C) Monitoring peripheral pulses in both lower extremities.
D) Maintaining the client on a strict nothing-by-mouth (NPO) status.
,Answer: B) Administering deep palpation over the abdominal mass.
Rationale: The client's presentation is highly indicative of an abdominal aortic aneurysm
(AAA). Deep palpation over a pulsating abdominal mass is strictly contraindicated
because it can cause a catastrophic rupture of the aneurysm, leading to rapid
exsanguination.
Question
A nurse is analyzing the arterial blood gas (ABG) results of a client who has been
vomiting continuously for the past 48 hours. The values are: pH 7.49, PaCO₂ 40 mm
Hg, and HCO₃ 32 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these findings?
A) Uncompensated Respiratory Alkalosis
B) Uncompensated Metabolic Acidosis
C) Uncompensated Metabolic Alkalosis
D) Fully Compensated Respiratory Acidosis
Answer: C) Uncompensated Metabolic Alkalosis
Rationale: The pH is elevated (>7.45), indicating alkalosis. The HCO₃ is elevated (>26
mEq/L), which aligns with the alkalotic pH and points to a metabolic origin. The PaCO₂
is within the normal range (35–45 mm Hg), meaning no respiratory compensation has
occurred.
Question
A client is admitted to the progressive care unit with an acute exacerbation of left-sided
heart failure. Which clinical assessment finding should the nurse expect to observe?
A) Dependent pitting edema in the lower extremities
B) Jugular venous distension (JVD) at a 45-degree angle
C) Bilateral crackles auscultated in the lung bases
D) Splenomegaly and right upper quadrant tenderness
Answer: C) Bilateral crackles auscultated in the lung bases
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes blood to back up into the pulmonary
circulation, leading to pulmonary congestion. This presents as respiratory symptoms like
crackles, dyspnea, and orthopnea. Right-sided heart failure causes systemic venous
congestion (JVD, dependent edema, splenomegaly).
,Question
A nurse receives a shift report on four clients. Using the priority-setting framework,
which client should the nurse assess first?
A) A client with chronic atrial fibrillation whose heart rate is stable at 88 beats per
minute.
B) A client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm who suddenly reports severe, tearing
flank pain.
C) A client with polycythemia vera whose hemoglobin level is stable at 17.2 g/dL.
D) A client with leukemia who has an oral temperature of 99.1°F (37.3°C).
Answer: B) A client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm who suddenly reports
severe, tearing flank pain.
Rationale: Sudden, severe, tearing flank or back pain in a client with a known AAA
indicates an imminent or active aneurysm rupture. This is a life-threatening emergency
requiring immediate surgical intervention.
Question
A client undergoing chemotherapy for lung cancer presents with a white blood cell
(WBC) count of 1,200/mm³. Which protective intervention must the nurse enforce?
A) Ensure the client wears an N95 respirator at all times in the room.
B) Prohibit fresh flowers, raw fruits, and unpasteurized foods in the room.
C) Mandate standard contact precautions with a plastic fluid-resistant gown.
D) Keep the client's room door wide open to monitor breathing patterns.
Answer: B) Prohibit fresh flowers, raw fruits, and unpasteurized foods in the
room.
Rationale: The client has severe neutropenia (WBC < 4,000/mm³). Neutropenic
precautions are required to protect the client from environmental pathogens. Fresh
flowers, standing water, and raw or unpeeled fruits carry bacteria and fungi that can
cause fatal opportunistic infections.
Question
, A nurse is preparing a discharge educational plan for a client who recently received a
mechanical aortic valve replacement. Which statement by the client indicates a correct
understanding of long-term therapy?
A) "I will only need to take blood thinners for the first six months after surgery."
B) "I must take lifelong Warfarin therapy and get my INR checked regularly."
C) "I should switch to a diet rich in green, leafy vegetables to help with healing."
D) "I can use a firm bristle toothbrush to keep my teeth completely clean."
Answer: B) "I must take lifelong Warfarin therapy and get my INR checked
regularly."
Rationale: Mechanical heart valves have a high risk of thromboembolism, requiring
lifelong anticoagulation with Warfarin. Clients must monitor their INR and maintain a
consistent intake of Vitamin K (green leafy vegetables) to prevent subtherapeutic or
toxic drug levels.
Question
A client is admitted to the emergency department presenting with crushing substernal
chest pain that radiates to the left jaw and arm. While initiating the acute coronary
syndrome protocol, which diagnostic lab test should the nurse anticipate as the most
specific indicator of myocardial injury?
A) Creatine Kinase (CK)
B) Myoglobin
C) Troponin I
D) Brain Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)
Answer: C) Troponin I
Rationale: Troponin I is highly specific to cardiac muscle tissue and elevates within 3 to
4 hours of a myocardial infarction. It remains elevated for up to 10 to 14 days, making it
the gold standard marker for diagnosing an acute MI.
Question
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with polycythemia vera. Which clinical
intervention should the nurse implement to reduce the client’s risk of developing a
thromboembolism?
A) Restrict total oral fluid intake to less than 1,000 mL per day.
B) Keep the client on strict bed rest with the legs dependent.
