NR 509 Chamberlain Exam
NR 509 Midterm and Final Exam Practice Test
Questions and Correct Verified Answers – a
Review of Previously Tested Questions and
Answers/ NR509 Midterm and Final Exam Prep
Latest / NR 509 Chamberlain
|GRADED A+| (EXAM READY)
(Solved) SCORE A
A+ TEST BANK 1
, NR 509 Chamberlain Exam
A 32-year-old male complains of a painless, cystic mass just above his left testicle. During the physical
examination, a strong flashlight is placed behind the scrotum through the area in question and
transillumination is noted. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Direct hernia
b. Indirect hernia
c. Spermatocele
d. Testicular tumor
e. Varicocele
c. Spermatocele
A 25-year-old graduate student presents to the clinic complaining of scrotal pain, which has been
increasing over the past 2 days. He is sexually active and has had unprotected intercourse with
multiple partners in the past couple of weeks. On examination, some mild to moderate swelling of the
scrotum on the right and tenderness with palpation of the right testicle are notes. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
a. Acute epididymitis
b. Hydrocele
c. Primary syphilis
d. Spermatocele
e. Testicular cancer
a. Acute epididymitis
A 32-year-old elementary teacher requests a workup for infertility. He and his wife have been trying to
conceive for the last 2 years. He reports that his wife has been evaluated and does not appear to have
any infertility issues. The overall examination does not reveal any significant abnormalities. He is of
average height and weight and has normal secondary sex characteristics of the genitalia. Of the
following, which would be most likely be abnormal and causing male infertility?
a. 5α-Dihydrotestosterone
b. 5α-Reductase
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
d. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
e. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
While performing a physical examination on male patients, it is possible to palpate multiple structures
in relation to the inguinal canal and related hernias. Which of the following is not palpable during an
external examination of the abdominal wall or inguinal region?
a. External inguinal ring
A+ TEST BANK 2
, NR 509 Chamberlain Exam
b. Internal inguinal ring
c. Pubic tubercle
d. Anterior superior iliac spine
e. Direct inguinal hernia
b. Internal inguinal ring
A 20-year-old college student presents for his annual physical examination. He recently became
sexually active and is inquiring about the best means of preventing sexually transmitted infections
(STIs). Of the following, which would be the most effective means of prevention?
a. Early withdrawal
b. Male condoms
c. Spermicides
d. Diaphragms
e. Cervical caps
b. Male condoms
A 21-year-old college student presents to the student health clinic for a full physical examination. He is
generally healthy; however, he reports that he has had sexual intercourse with multiple partners in the
past couple of months. He noticed a small lesion on the shaft of his penis a few days ago. While
performing the examination, he unwillingly achieves an erection. How should the clinician proceed at
this point?
a. Stop the examination immediately.
b. Have him return to see another provider.
c. Explain this is a normal response and finish the examination.
d. Tell him the examination cannot proceed until the erection subsides.
e. Assume that he is malingering.
c. Explain this is a normal response and finish the examination.
A 45-year-old driver's education instructor presents to the clinic for heavy periods and pelvic pain
during her menses. She reached menarche at age 13 years and has had regular periods except during
her pregnancies. She is a G4P3013 and does not use birth control as her husband has had a
vasectomy. She states this has been going on for about a year but seems to be getting worse. Her last
period was 1 week ago. On bimanual exam, a large midline mass halfway to the umbilicus is palpated.
Each adnexal area is nonpalpable. Her rectal exam is normal. Her body mass index (BMI) is 27. What is
the best explanation for her physical finding?
a. Large colonic stool
b. Ovarian mass
c. Fibroids
A+ TEST BANK 3
, NR 509 Chamberlain Exam
d. 4-Month pregnancy
e. Bartholin gland enlargement
c. Fibroids
A 32-year-old G0 woman comes for evaluation on why she and her husband have been unable to get
pregnant. Her husband has been married before and has two other children, ages 7 and 4 years. The
patient relates she began her periods at age 12 and has been fairly regular ever since. She began oral
contraceptive pills from when she got married until last year, when she began to try for a pregnancy.
Before this she had regular cycles for 10 years. She has had a history of five prior partners. She relates
she was once treated for a severe genital infection when she was in college. Based on this patient's
history, what is the best explanation for her infertility?
a. Prior pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
b. Prior Bartholin gland infection
c. Prior herpes infection
d. Metabolic disorder with subsequent hormonal irregularities leading to anovulation
e. Secondary amenorrhea
a. Prior pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
A 24-year-old retail clerk presents to the clinic for an annual exam. Her last Pap was 3 years ago and
was normal. She is a G0 and is currently not sexually active although she has had two lifetime partners.
She is on oral contraceptive pills for cycle control and has no medical problems. Based on guidelines,
the clinician proceeds to perform a Pap smear and places the speculum. There are two layers of cells,
squamous and columnar. Where is the most important area to obtain cells for a Pap smear?
a. Zona reticularis
b. Transformation zone
c. Squamous zone
d. Columnar zone
e. Linea nigra
b. Transformation zone
A 35-year-old grade school teacher presents for her annual exam. Her last Pap smear was 4 years ago
and normal. She is a G1P1 with a 6-year-old child. She has had four lifetime partners but only one
partner in the last 12 years. Otherwise she has no complaints. A speculum exam is done followed by a
bimanual examination during which a rectovaginal mass is palpated. Which of the following exam
findings would be most reassuring that this is not a colonic mass?
a. No cervical motion tenderness
b. No pus from the os
c. The mass dents with digital pressure
A+ TEST BANK 4
NR 509 Midterm and Final Exam Practice Test
Questions and Correct Verified Answers – a
Review of Previously Tested Questions and
Answers/ NR509 Midterm and Final Exam Prep
Latest / NR 509 Chamberlain
|GRADED A+| (EXAM READY)
(Solved) SCORE A
A+ TEST BANK 1
, NR 509 Chamberlain Exam
A 32-year-old male complains of a painless, cystic mass just above his left testicle. During the physical
examination, a strong flashlight is placed behind the scrotum through the area in question and
transillumination is noted. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Direct hernia
b. Indirect hernia
c. Spermatocele
d. Testicular tumor
e. Varicocele
c. Spermatocele
A 25-year-old graduate student presents to the clinic complaining of scrotal pain, which has been
increasing over the past 2 days. He is sexually active and has had unprotected intercourse with
multiple partners in the past couple of weeks. On examination, some mild to moderate swelling of the
scrotum on the right and tenderness with palpation of the right testicle are notes. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
a. Acute epididymitis
b. Hydrocele
c. Primary syphilis
d. Spermatocele
e. Testicular cancer
a. Acute epididymitis
A 32-year-old elementary teacher requests a workup for infertility. He and his wife have been trying to
conceive for the last 2 years. He reports that his wife has been evaluated and does not appear to have
any infertility issues. The overall examination does not reveal any significant abnormalities. He is of
average height and weight and has normal secondary sex characteristics of the genitalia. Of the
following, which would be most likely be abnormal and causing male infertility?
a. 5α-Dihydrotestosterone
b. 5α-Reductase
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
d. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
e. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
While performing a physical examination on male patients, it is possible to palpate multiple structures
in relation to the inguinal canal and related hernias. Which of the following is not palpable during an
external examination of the abdominal wall or inguinal region?
a. External inguinal ring
A+ TEST BANK 2
, NR 509 Chamberlain Exam
b. Internal inguinal ring
c. Pubic tubercle
d. Anterior superior iliac spine
e. Direct inguinal hernia
b. Internal inguinal ring
A 20-year-old college student presents for his annual physical examination. He recently became
sexually active and is inquiring about the best means of preventing sexually transmitted infections
(STIs). Of the following, which would be the most effective means of prevention?
a. Early withdrawal
b. Male condoms
c. Spermicides
d. Diaphragms
e. Cervical caps
b. Male condoms
A 21-year-old college student presents to the student health clinic for a full physical examination. He is
generally healthy; however, he reports that he has had sexual intercourse with multiple partners in the
past couple of months. He noticed a small lesion on the shaft of his penis a few days ago. While
performing the examination, he unwillingly achieves an erection. How should the clinician proceed at
this point?
a. Stop the examination immediately.
b. Have him return to see another provider.
c. Explain this is a normal response and finish the examination.
d. Tell him the examination cannot proceed until the erection subsides.
e. Assume that he is malingering.
c. Explain this is a normal response and finish the examination.
A 45-year-old driver's education instructor presents to the clinic for heavy periods and pelvic pain
during her menses. She reached menarche at age 13 years and has had regular periods except during
her pregnancies. She is a G4P3013 and does not use birth control as her husband has had a
vasectomy. She states this has been going on for about a year but seems to be getting worse. Her last
period was 1 week ago. On bimanual exam, a large midline mass halfway to the umbilicus is palpated.
Each adnexal area is nonpalpable. Her rectal exam is normal. Her body mass index (BMI) is 27. What is
the best explanation for her physical finding?
a. Large colonic stool
b. Ovarian mass
c. Fibroids
A+ TEST BANK 3
, NR 509 Chamberlain Exam
d. 4-Month pregnancy
e. Bartholin gland enlargement
c. Fibroids
A 32-year-old G0 woman comes for evaluation on why she and her husband have been unable to get
pregnant. Her husband has been married before and has two other children, ages 7 and 4 years. The
patient relates she began her periods at age 12 and has been fairly regular ever since. She began oral
contraceptive pills from when she got married until last year, when she began to try for a pregnancy.
Before this she had regular cycles for 10 years. She has had a history of five prior partners. She relates
she was once treated for a severe genital infection when she was in college. Based on this patient's
history, what is the best explanation for her infertility?
a. Prior pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
b. Prior Bartholin gland infection
c. Prior herpes infection
d. Metabolic disorder with subsequent hormonal irregularities leading to anovulation
e. Secondary amenorrhea
a. Prior pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
A 24-year-old retail clerk presents to the clinic for an annual exam. Her last Pap was 3 years ago and
was normal. She is a G0 and is currently not sexually active although she has had two lifetime partners.
She is on oral contraceptive pills for cycle control and has no medical problems. Based on guidelines,
the clinician proceeds to perform a Pap smear and places the speculum. There are two layers of cells,
squamous and columnar. Where is the most important area to obtain cells for a Pap smear?
a. Zona reticularis
b. Transformation zone
c. Squamous zone
d. Columnar zone
e. Linea nigra
b. Transformation zone
A 35-year-old grade school teacher presents for her annual exam. Her last Pap smear was 4 years ago
and normal. She is a G1P1 with a 6-year-old child. She has had four lifetime partners but only one
partner in the last 12 years. Otherwise she has no complaints. A speculum exam is done followed by a
bimanual examination during which a rectovaginal mass is palpated. Which of the following exam
findings would be most reassuring that this is not a colonic mass?
a. No cervical motion tenderness
b. No pus from the os
c. The mass dents with digital pressure
A+ TEST BANK 4
