NR566
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
NR 566 / NR566 Final Exam
Study Guide Qs & Ans (Latest 2026/2027):
Advanced Pharmacology for Care of the Family
(Verified Answers) 2026/2027
Chamberlain University | Advanced Pharmacology for Care of the Family
50 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Infectious Disease Pharmacotherapy Psychopharmacology & Neurology
Cardiovascular & Endocrine Therapy Men's & Women's Health
Respiratory & Dermatologic Therapy Geriatrics & Special Populations
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTION 1 | Infectious Disease Pharmacotherapy | Q1-Q10 | NR566 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 50
A 34-year-old patient presents with a severe fungal nail infection involving multiple toenails. The
patient has tried topical ciclopirox for 12 weeks without improvement. The nurse practitioner
decides to prescribe oral terbinafine. Prior to initiating therapy, which laboratory test is most
important to obtain?
A. Liver function tests
B. Complete blood count with differential
C. Serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen
D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone level
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Oral terbinafine is hepatotoxic and can cause drug-induced liver injury; baseline and periodic liver function tests are
required. While CBC monitoring is reasonable, hepatic assessment is the priority before initiating systemic
antifungal therapy.
Q2 Question 2 of 50
A 28-year-old woman at 16 weeks gestation presents with a vaginal yeast infection confirmed by
microscopy. She reports significant pruritus and thick white discharge. Which antifungal agent
is the safest and most appropriate first-line treatment during pregnancy?
A. Topical clotrimazole 1% cream for 7 days
B. Oral fluconazole 150 mg single dose
C. Oral itraconazole 200 mg daily for 3 days
D. Topical nystatin suspension swish and swallow
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Topical azoles such as clotrimazole are preferred during pregnancy because systemic absorption is minimal. Oral
fluconazole is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenicity risk, and nystatin is ineffective against Candida
albicans vulvovaginitis.
Q3 Question 3 of 50
A 42-year-old patient with HIV presents with oral candidiasis that has recurred twice despite
nystatin therapy. The patient has a CD4 count of 180 cells/mm3. Which oral antifungal agent
provides the most effective treatment with the best bioavailability for this immunocompromised
patient?
A. Fluconazole 100-200 mg daily for 7-14 days
B. Griseofulvin microsize 500 mg daily
C. Terbinafine 250 mg daily for 2 weeks
D. Amphotericin B oral suspension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Fluconazole has excellent oral bioavailability and is the drug of choice for oropharyngeal candidiasis in
immunocompromised patients. Griseofulvin and terbinafine are ineffective against Candida species, and oral
amphotericin B is poorly absorbed and reserved for refractory cases.
NR566 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 of 21
, SECTION 1 | Infectious Disease Pharmacotherapy | Q1-Q10 | NR566 2026/2027
Q4 Question 4 of 50
A 55-year-old patient with chronic hepatitis C, genotype 1a, is starting direct-acting antiviral
therapy. The prescriber orders glecaprevir/pibrentasvir (Mavyret) for 8 weeks. Which baseline
assessment is NOT routinely required before initiating this regimen?
A. Hepatitis D RNA quantification
B. Hepatitis B surface antigen screening
C. Hepatitis C RNA viral load quantification
D. Hepatitis A total antibody testing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Hepatitis D screening is not routinely required before starting HCV direct-acting antivirals. HBV screening is
mandatory due to reactivation risk, HCV RNA quantification establishes baseline, and hepatitis A immunity
assessment is standard. HDV co-infection testing is only indicated when HDV risk factors are present.
Q5 Question 5 of 50
A 62-year-old patient with recurrent genital herpes reports 8 outbreaks per year. The nurse
practitioner recommends suppressive therapy. Which antiviral agent is LEAST appropriate for
long-term suppression due to dosing complexity?
A. Valacyclovir 500 mg once daily
B. Acyclovir 200 mg five times daily
C. Acyclovir 400 mg twice daily
D. Famciclovir 250 mg twice daily
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Acyclovir 200 mg five times daily is an episodic treatment regimen that is impractical for long-term suppressive
therapy due to frequent dosing. Valacyclovir and famciclovir offer simpler dosing schedules that improve
adherence for chronic suppression.
Q6 Question 6 of 50
A 38-year-old patient with influenza A presents within 36 hours of symptom onset. The patient
has no chronic medical conditions and is not pregnant. The prescriber considers antiviral
options. Which agent is administered intravenously and reserved for hospitalized patients?
A. Oseltamivir 75 mg orally twice daily for 5 days
B. Zanamivir 10 mg inhaled twice daily for 5 days
C. Baloxavir marboxil single 40-80 mg oral dose
D. Peramivir 600 mg IV single dose
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Peramivir is an intravenous neuraminidase inhibitor approved for acute uncomplicated influenza in patients who
cannot take oral or inhaled medications, typically used in hospitalized patients. Baloxavir, oseltamivir, and
zanamivir are outpatient oral or inhaled therapies.
NR566 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 21
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
NR 566 / NR566 Final Exam
Study Guide Qs & Ans (Latest 2026/2027):
Advanced Pharmacology for Care of the Family
(Verified Answers) 2026/2027
Chamberlain University | Advanced Pharmacology for Care of the Family
50 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Infectious Disease Pharmacotherapy Psychopharmacology & Neurology
Cardiovascular & Endocrine Therapy Men's & Women's Health
Respiratory & Dermatologic Therapy Geriatrics & Special Populations
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTION 1 | Infectious Disease Pharmacotherapy | Q1-Q10 | NR566 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 50
A 34-year-old patient presents with a severe fungal nail infection involving multiple toenails. The
patient has tried topical ciclopirox for 12 weeks without improvement. The nurse practitioner
decides to prescribe oral terbinafine. Prior to initiating therapy, which laboratory test is most
important to obtain?
A. Liver function tests
B. Complete blood count with differential
C. Serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen
D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone level
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Oral terbinafine is hepatotoxic and can cause drug-induced liver injury; baseline and periodic liver function tests are
required. While CBC monitoring is reasonable, hepatic assessment is the priority before initiating systemic
antifungal therapy.
Q2 Question 2 of 50
A 28-year-old woman at 16 weeks gestation presents with a vaginal yeast infection confirmed by
microscopy. She reports significant pruritus and thick white discharge. Which antifungal agent
is the safest and most appropriate first-line treatment during pregnancy?
A. Topical clotrimazole 1% cream for 7 days
B. Oral fluconazole 150 mg single dose
C. Oral itraconazole 200 mg daily for 3 days
D. Topical nystatin suspension swish and swallow
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Topical azoles such as clotrimazole are preferred during pregnancy because systemic absorption is minimal. Oral
fluconazole is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenicity risk, and nystatin is ineffective against Candida
albicans vulvovaginitis.
Q3 Question 3 of 50
A 42-year-old patient with HIV presents with oral candidiasis that has recurred twice despite
nystatin therapy. The patient has a CD4 count of 180 cells/mm3. Which oral antifungal agent
provides the most effective treatment with the best bioavailability for this immunocompromised
patient?
A. Fluconazole 100-200 mg daily for 7-14 days
B. Griseofulvin microsize 500 mg daily
C. Terbinafine 250 mg daily for 2 weeks
D. Amphotericin B oral suspension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Fluconazole has excellent oral bioavailability and is the drug of choice for oropharyngeal candidiasis in
immunocompromised patients. Griseofulvin and terbinafine are ineffective against Candida species, and oral
amphotericin B is poorly absorbed and reserved for refractory cases.
NR566 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 of 21
, SECTION 1 | Infectious Disease Pharmacotherapy | Q1-Q10 | NR566 2026/2027
Q4 Question 4 of 50
A 55-year-old patient with chronic hepatitis C, genotype 1a, is starting direct-acting antiviral
therapy. The prescriber orders glecaprevir/pibrentasvir (Mavyret) for 8 weeks. Which baseline
assessment is NOT routinely required before initiating this regimen?
A. Hepatitis D RNA quantification
B. Hepatitis B surface antigen screening
C. Hepatitis C RNA viral load quantification
D. Hepatitis A total antibody testing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Hepatitis D screening is not routinely required before starting HCV direct-acting antivirals. HBV screening is
mandatory due to reactivation risk, HCV RNA quantification establishes baseline, and hepatitis A immunity
assessment is standard. HDV co-infection testing is only indicated when HDV risk factors are present.
Q5 Question 5 of 50
A 62-year-old patient with recurrent genital herpes reports 8 outbreaks per year. The nurse
practitioner recommends suppressive therapy. Which antiviral agent is LEAST appropriate for
long-term suppression due to dosing complexity?
A. Valacyclovir 500 mg once daily
B. Acyclovir 200 mg five times daily
C. Acyclovir 400 mg twice daily
D. Famciclovir 250 mg twice daily
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Acyclovir 200 mg five times daily is an episodic treatment regimen that is impractical for long-term suppressive
therapy due to frequent dosing. Valacyclovir and famciclovir offer simpler dosing schedules that improve
adherence for chronic suppression.
Q6 Question 6 of 50
A 38-year-old patient with influenza A presents within 36 hours of symptom onset. The patient
has no chronic medical conditions and is not pregnant. The prescriber considers antiviral
options. Which agent is administered intravenously and reserved for hospitalized patients?
A. Oseltamivir 75 mg orally twice daily for 5 days
B. Zanamivir 10 mg inhaled twice daily for 5 days
C. Baloxavir marboxil single 40-80 mg oral dose
D. Peramivir 600 mg IV single dose
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Peramivir is an intravenous neuraminidase inhibitor approved for acute uncomplicated influenza in patients who
cannot take oral or inhaled medications, typically used in hospitalized patients. Baloxavir, oseltamivir, and
zanamivir are outpatient oral or inhaled therapies.
NR566 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 21
