ATI PN Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2026 |
Complete Exam Test Bank with Real Questions,
Verified Correct Answers & Detailed Rationales |
Graded A+
Question 1
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has peptic ulcer disease and is to start a
new prescription for sucralfate. Which of the following actions of sucralfate should the
nurse include in the teaching?
A. Neutralizes gastric acid
B. Inhibits proton pumps
C. Forms a protective barrier over ulcers
D. Decreases gastric acid secretion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sucralfate acts locally by forming a viscous, protective barrier that adheres
to ulcer sites in the stomach, protecting the tissue from acid and pepsin. It does not
neutralize acid or inhibit acid secretion .
Question 2
A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has multiple sclerosis and a new
prescription for methylprednisolone. Which of the following instructions should the
nurse include? (Select all that apply)
A. Take the medication with food
B. Monitor for signs of infection
C. Discontinue the medication abruptly if side effects occur
D. Expect weight loss while taking this medication
E. Report any unusual bleeding or bruising
Correct Answers: A, B, E
Rationale: Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid that should be taken with food to
reduce gastric irritation. Clients should monitor for signs of infection due to
immunosuppression and report unusual bleeding or bruising. Corticosteroids should
not be discontinued abruptly due to risk of adrenal crisis .
pg. 1
,Question 3
A nurse is providing discharge teaching about handling medication to a client who is to
continue taking oral transmucosal fentanyl raspberry flavored lozenges on a stick.
Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. Use the medication as needed for mild pain
B. Store unused medication sticks in a storage container
C. Chew the lozenge thoroughly before swallowing
D. Avoid eating or drinking for 1 hour after use
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oral transmucosal fentanyl is a potent opioid analgesic for breakthrough
cancer pain. Proper storage in the original, child-resistant container is essential to
prevent accidental ingestion, especially by children. The client should allow the lozenge
to dissolve in the mouth, not chew or swallow completely .
Question 4
A nurse is reviewing the ECG of a client who is receiving IV furosemide for heart failure.
The nurse should identify which of the following as an indication of hypokalemia?
A. Tall peaked T waves
B. Presence of U-waves
C. Prolonged PR interval
D. ST-segment elevation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia caused by loop diuretics like furosemide is indicated on ECG
by the presence of U-waves, flattened T waves, and ST depression. These changes
increase the risk of arrhythmias .
Question 5
The nurse is caring for a client who has cancer and is taking oral morphine and docusate
sodium. The nurse should instruct the client that taking docusate sodium daily can
minimize which of the following adverse effects of morphine?
A. Nausea
B. Constipation
C. Respiratory depression
D. Sedation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Opioids like morphine slow GI motility, leading to constipation. Docusate
pg. 2
,sodium is a stool softener that prevents opioid-induced constipation and promotes
bowel movements .
Question 6
A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving mannitol via IV continuous
infusion. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
A. Bibasilar crackles
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Bradycardia
D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that can cause fluid overload and
pulmonary edema if excessive fluid is retained. Bibasilar crackles indicate fluid in the
lungs, requiring prompt intervention .
Question 7
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a gastric ulcer and a new prescription
for ranitidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. "Take the medication with meals."
B. "Avoid alcohol while taking this medication."
C. "Report yellowing of the skin."
D. "Stop the medication once symptoms improve."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ranitidine can cause hepatotoxicity, which presents as jaundice (yellowing
of skin and sclera). Clients must report this immediately .
Question 8
A nurse is assessing a client after administering a second dose of cefazolin IV. The nurse
notes the client has anxiety, hypotension, and dyspnea. Which of the following
medications should the nurse administer first?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Epinephrine
C. Albuterol
D. Hydrocortisone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client is showing signs of anaphylaxis (hypotension, dyspnea, anxiety).
pg. 3
, Epinephrine is the first-line treatment to rapidly reverse symptoms. Other medications
can be adjunctive .
Question 9
A nurse is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 8
hours. The drop factor on the manual IV tubing is 15 gtt/mL. The nurse should ensure
that the manual IV infusion is set to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round to the nearest
whole number)
A. 20 gtt/min
B. 31 gtt/min
C. 18 gtt/min
D. 25 gtt/min
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: (1000 mL / 8 hr) × (15 gtt/mL) ÷ 60 min = 31.25 ≈ 31 gtt/min .
Question 10
A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client whose family reports the
client has taken large amounts of diazepam. Which of the following medications should
the nurse anticipate administering?
A. Naloxone
B. Flumazenil
C. Activated charcoal
D. Atropine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist used to reverse diazepam
overdose effects. Naloxone reverses opioid toxicity but not benzodiazepines .
Question 11
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via
continuous IV infusion for DVT. The nurse should discontinue the medication infusion
for which of the following client findings?
A. Platelets 150,000/mm³
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) 80 seconds
C. Platelets 96,000/mm³
D. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
pg. 4
Complete Exam Test Bank with Real Questions,
Verified Correct Answers & Detailed Rationales |
Graded A+
Question 1
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has peptic ulcer disease and is to start a
new prescription for sucralfate. Which of the following actions of sucralfate should the
nurse include in the teaching?
A. Neutralizes gastric acid
B. Inhibits proton pumps
C. Forms a protective barrier over ulcers
D. Decreases gastric acid secretion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sucralfate acts locally by forming a viscous, protective barrier that adheres
to ulcer sites in the stomach, protecting the tissue from acid and pepsin. It does not
neutralize acid or inhibit acid secretion .
Question 2
A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has multiple sclerosis and a new
prescription for methylprednisolone. Which of the following instructions should the
nurse include? (Select all that apply)
A. Take the medication with food
B. Monitor for signs of infection
C. Discontinue the medication abruptly if side effects occur
D. Expect weight loss while taking this medication
E. Report any unusual bleeding or bruising
Correct Answers: A, B, E
Rationale: Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid that should be taken with food to
reduce gastric irritation. Clients should monitor for signs of infection due to
immunosuppression and report unusual bleeding or bruising. Corticosteroids should
not be discontinued abruptly due to risk of adrenal crisis .
pg. 1
,Question 3
A nurse is providing discharge teaching about handling medication to a client who is to
continue taking oral transmucosal fentanyl raspberry flavored lozenges on a stick.
Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. Use the medication as needed for mild pain
B. Store unused medication sticks in a storage container
C. Chew the lozenge thoroughly before swallowing
D. Avoid eating or drinking for 1 hour after use
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oral transmucosal fentanyl is a potent opioid analgesic for breakthrough
cancer pain. Proper storage in the original, child-resistant container is essential to
prevent accidental ingestion, especially by children. The client should allow the lozenge
to dissolve in the mouth, not chew or swallow completely .
Question 4
A nurse is reviewing the ECG of a client who is receiving IV furosemide for heart failure.
The nurse should identify which of the following as an indication of hypokalemia?
A. Tall peaked T waves
B. Presence of U-waves
C. Prolonged PR interval
D. ST-segment elevation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia caused by loop diuretics like furosemide is indicated on ECG
by the presence of U-waves, flattened T waves, and ST depression. These changes
increase the risk of arrhythmias .
Question 5
The nurse is caring for a client who has cancer and is taking oral morphine and docusate
sodium. The nurse should instruct the client that taking docusate sodium daily can
minimize which of the following adverse effects of morphine?
A. Nausea
B. Constipation
C. Respiratory depression
D. Sedation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Opioids like morphine slow GI motility, leading to constipation. Docusate
pg. 2
,sodium is a stool softener that prevents opioid-induced constipation and promotes
bowel movements .
Question 6
A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving mannitol via IV continuous
infusion. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
A. Bibasilar crackles
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Bradycardia
D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that can cause fluid overload and
pulmonary edema if excessive fluid is retained. Bibasilar crackles indicate fluid in the
lungs, requiring prompt intervention .
Question 7
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a gastric ulcer and a new prescription
for ranitidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. "Take the medication with meals."
B. "Avoid alcohol while taking this medication."
C. "Report yellowing of the skin."
D. "Stop the medication once symptoms improve."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ranitidine can cause hepatotoxicity, which presents as jaundice (yellowing
of skin and sclera). Clients must report this immediately .
Question 8
A nurse is assessing a client after administering a second dose of cefazolin IV. The nurse
notes the client has anxiety, hypotension, and dyspnea. Which of the following
medications should the nurse administer first?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Epinephrine
C. Albuterol
D. Hydrocortisone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client is showing signs of anaphylaxis (hypotension, dyspnea, anxiety).
pg. 3
, Epinephrine is the first-line treatment to rapidly reverse symptoms. Other medications
can be adjunctive .
Question 9
A nurse is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 8
hours. The drop factor on the manual IV tubing is 15 gtt/mL. The nurse should ensure
that the manual IV infusion is set to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round to the nearest
whole number)
A. 20 gtt/min
B. 31 gtt/min
C. 18 gtt/min
D. 25 gtt/min
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: (1000 mL / 8 hr) × (15 gtt/mL) ÷ 60 min = 31.25 ≈ 31 gtt/min .
Question 10
A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client whose family reports the
client has taken large amounts of diazepam. Which of the following medications should
the nurse anticipate administering?
A. Naloxone
B. Flumazenil
C. Activated charcoal
D. Atropine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist used to reverse diazepam
overdose effects. Naloxone reverses opioid toxicity but not benzodiazepines .
Question 11
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via
continuous IV infusion for DVT. The nurse should discontinue the medication infusion
for which of the following client findings?
A. Platelets 150,000/mm³
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) 80 seconds
C. Platelets 96,000/mm³
D. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
pg. 4
