VIRTUAL ATI PREDICTOR (GREEN LIGHT) EXAM/ COMPLETED VATI GREENLIGHT
EXAM /A+GRADE 2026/NEWEST UPDATE!!!
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and just underwent an
amniocentesis. Which of the following complications should the nurse prioritize monitoring for?
A) Vomiting
B) Hypertension
C) Epigastric pain
D) Contractions
E) Decreased urinary output
Correct Answer: D) Contractions
Rationale: Amniocentesis is an invasive procedure that carries a risk of stimulating uterine
activity or causing injury to the amniotic sac. The nurse must monitor for signs of preterm
labor, such as uterine contractions, abdominal cramping, or leaking of amniotic fluid, as
these can lead to premature delivery or fetal distress.
Question 2
A nurse is providing teaching to an older adult client about methods to promote healthy
nighttime sleep. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A) Stay in bed at least 1 hr if unable to fall asleep
B) Take a 1 hr nap during the day
C) Perform vigorous exercises just prior to bedtime
D) Eat a light snack before bedtime
E) Drink 12 oz of water before lying down
Correct Answer: D) Eat a light snack before bedtime
Rationale: A light snack containing carbohydrates (which can promote serotonin release)
and protein (like warm milk or crackers with cheese) can help promote sleep by preventing
hunger during the night. Exercising right before bed or staying in bed while frustrated by
insomnia can actually stimulate the client and hinder sleep.
Question 3
A nurse on a telemetry unit is caring for a client who becomes unconscious and whose monitor
displays ventricular tachycardia. After determining the client does not have a palpable pulse,
which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Assess heart sounds
B) Defibrillate
C) Establish IV access
D) Administer epinephrine
E) Perform a 12-lead ECG
Correct Answer: B) Defibrillate
Rationale: Pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT) is a shockable rhythm. According to
ACLS guidelines, the priority for a witnessed pulseless VT is immediate defibrillation. The
, 2
faster the shock is delivered, the higher the chance of converting the heart back to a
perfusing rhythm. CPR should be performed while the defibrillator is being charged.
Question 4
A nurse is admitting a client who is 1 week postpartum and reports excessive vaginal bleeding.
The nurse does not speak the same language as the client. The client's partner and 10-year-old
child are accompanying her. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Have the client's child translate
B) Allow the client's partner to translate
C) Request a female interpreter through the facility
D) Ask a nursing student who speaks the same language to translate
E) Use a smartphone translation application
Correct Answer: C) Request a female interpreter through the facility
Rationale: For accurate medical assessment and to maintain HIPAA compliance, a certified
medical interpreter must be used. Family members, especially children, should never be
used as translators as they may not understand medical terminology or may omit sensitive
information. A female interpreter is preferred in obstetric/gynecological cases for the
client's comfort and modesty.
Question 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is febrile and applies a cooling blanket to reduce the fever.
Which of the following findings indicates the client is having an adverse reaction to the cooling?
A) Flushing
B) Tachycardia
C) Restlessness
D) Shivering
E) Diaphoresis
Correct Answer: D) Shivering
Rationale: Shivering is the body's natural mechanism for generating heat. If a cooling
blanket causes the client to shiver, it will actually increase the metabolic rate and body
temperature, defeating the purpose of the blanket. If shivering occurs, the nurse should
increase the blanket temperature or discontinue use.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) of the left lower extremity
and is receiving a heparin IV infusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Position the client with the affected extremity lower than the heart
B) Withhold heparin IV infusion for a PTT of 110 seconds
C) Administer acetaminophen for pain
D) Massage the affected extremity every 4 hr
E) Maintain the client on strict bed rest for 1 week
, 3
Correct Answer: B) Withhold heparin IV infusion PTT- 30-40 seconds; x2 if on heparin
Rationale: The therapeutic range for PTT while on heparin is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the
normal baseline (normal is approx 30-40 seconds). If the PTT is significantly higher (e.g.,
over 100 seconds), it indicates over-anticoagulation and a high risk for bleeding. The nurse
must withhold the dose and notify the provider. Massaging the leg is strictly
contraindicated as it can dislodge the clot and cause a pulmonary embolism.
Question 7
A nurse is reviewing assessment data from several clients. For which of the following clients
should the nurse recommend a referral to a dietitian?
A) An older adult client who has a BMI of 24
B) A client who has a nonhealing leg ulcer
C) An older adult client who has presbyopia
D) A client who has an albumin level of 3.7 g/dL
E) A client who has a heart rate of 72/min
Correct Answer: B) A client who has a nonhealing leg ulcer
Rationale: Wound healing requires a high intake of protein, calories, Vitamin C, and Zinc. A
nonhealing ulcer suggests nutritional deficiencies that are preventing tissue repair. A BMI
of 24 and an albumin of 3.7 are within normal limits, and presbyopia (vision change) does
not directly require dietary intervention.
Question 8
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease and is
receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A) Eat 1 g/kg of protein per day
B) Take magnesium hydroxide for indigestion
C) Drink at least 3 L of fluid daily
D) Consume foods high in potassium
E) Use salt substitutes for all meals
Correct Answer: A) Eat 1 g/kg of protein per day
Rationale: While non-dialysis CKD requires protein restriction, clients on hemodialysis lose
protein during the procedure and require a higher intake (approx 1.2-1.5 g/kg/day, though
1g/kg is the targeted minimum for this exam). They must avoid magnesium (renal failure
leads to toxicity), restrict fluids, and strictly avoid high potassium foods.
Question 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the
following factors places the client at the highest risk for aspiration?
A) Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding
B) A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
C) Receiving a high osmolarity formula
, 4
D) A residual of 65 mL 1 hr postprandial
E) The use of a small-bore feeding tube
Correct Answer: B) A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease
Rationale: GERD involves the backward flow of stomach contents into the esophagus.
During tube feedings, this increases the risk that formula will be regurgitated and inhaled
into the lungs (aspiration). High-Fowler's position actually reduces this risk.
Question 10
A nurse is providing prenatal teaching to a client who is at 12 weeks of gestation. The nurse
should tell the client that she will undergo which of the following screening tests at 16 weeks of
gestation?
A) Chorionic villus sampling
B) Cervical cultures for chlamydia
C) Nonstress test
D) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)
E) Group B Streptococcus culture
Correct Answer: D) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein- 16 to 18 weeks
Rationale: MSAFP is a screening test used to detect neural tube defects or chromosomal
abnormalities. The optimal time for this test is between 16 and 18 weeks of gestation. CVS
is done earlier (10-12 weeks), and the Nonstress test is done much later in the third
trimester.
Question 11
A nurse is caring for a client who is on bed rest. The nurse should recognize that which of the
following findings is a complication of immobility?
A) Decreased serum calcium levels
B) Increased blood pressure
C) Swollen area on calf
D) Urinary frequency
E) Increased bowel sounds
Correct Answer: C) Swollen area on calf
Rationale: Immobility leads to venous stasis, which significantly increases the risk of deep-
vein thrombosis (DVT). A swollen, tender, or red calf is a classic indicator of a DVT.
Immobility actually causes increased serum calcium (bone demineralization) and
orthostatic hypotension.
Question 12
A nurse in an acute care mental health facility is participating in a medication-education group.
The leader of the group uses a laissez-faire leadership style. Which of the following actions
should the nurse expect from the leader?
A) The leader encourages members to remain silent until questions are called for
EXAM /A+GRADE 2026/NEWEST UPDATE!!!
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and just underwent an
amniocentesis. Which of the following complications should the nurse prioritize monitoring for?
A) Vomiting
B) Hypertension
C) Epigastric pain
D) Contractions
E) Decreased urinary output
Correct Answer: D) Contractions
Rationale: Amniocentesis is an invasive procedure that carries a risk of stimulating uterine
activity or causing injury to the amniotic sac. The nurse must monitor for signs of preterm
labor, such as uterine contractions, abdominal cramping, or leaking of amniotic fluid, as
these can lead to premature delivery or fetal distress.
Question 2
A nurse is providing teaching to an older adult client about methods to promote healthy
nighttime sleep. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A) Stay in bed at least 1 hr if unable to fall asleep
B) Take a 1 hr nap during the day
C) Perform vigorous exercises just prior to bedtime
D) Eat a light snack before bedtime
E) Drink 12 oz of water before lying down
Correct Answer: D) Eat a light snack before bedtime
Rationale: A light snack containing carbohydrates (which can promote serotonin release)
and protein (like warm milk or crackers with cheese) can help promote sleep by preventing
hunger during the night. Exercising right before bed or staying in bed while frustrated by
insomnia can actually stimulate the client and hinder sleep.
Question 3
A nurse on a telemetry unit is caring for a client who becomes unconscious and whose monitor
displays ventricular tachycardia. After determining the client does not have a palpable pulse,
which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Assess heart sounds
B) Defibrillate
C) Establish IV access
D) Administer epinephrine
E) Perform a 12-lead ECG
Correct Answer: B) Defibrillate
Rationale: Pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT) is a shockable rhythm. According to
ACLS guidelines, the priority for a witnessed pulseless VT is immediate defibrillation. The
, 2
faster the shock is delivered, the higher the chance of converting the heart back to a
perfusing rhythm. CPR should be performed while the defibrillator is being charged.
Question 4
A nurse is admitting a client who is 1 week postpartum and reports excessive vaginal bleeding.
The nurse does not speak the same language as the client. The client's partner and 10-year-old
child are accompanying her. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Have the client's child translate
B) Allow the client's partner to translate
C) Request a female interpreter through the facility
D) Ask a nursing student who speaks the same language to translate
E) Use a smartphone translation application
Correct Answer: C) Request a female interpreter through the facility
Rationale: For accurate medical assessment and to maintain HIPAA compliance, a certified
medical interpreter must be used. Family members, especially children, should never be
used as translators as they may not understand medical terminology or may omit sensitive
information. A female interpreter is preferred in obstetric/gynecological cases for the
client's comfort and modesty.
Question 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is febrile and applies a cooling blanket to reduce the fever.
Which of the following findings indicates the client is having an adverse reaction to the cooling?
A) Flushing
B) Tachycardia
C) Restlessness
D) Shivering
E) Diaphoresis
Correct Answer: D) Shivering
Rationale: Shivering is the body's natural mechanism for generating heat. If a cooling
blanket causes the client to shiver, it will actually increase the metabolic rate and body
temperature, defeating the purpose of the blanket. If shivering occurs, the nurse should
increase the blanket temperature or discontinue use.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) of the left lower extremity
and is receiving a heparin IV infusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Position the client with the affected extremity lower than the heart
B) Withhold heparin IV infusion for a PTT of 110 seconds
C) Administer acetaminophen for pain
D) Massage the affected extremity every 4 hr
E) Maintain the client on strict bed rest for 1 week
, 3
Correct Answer: B) Withhold heparin IV infusion PTT- 30-40 seconds; x2 if on heparin
Rationale: The therapeutic range for PTT while on heparin is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the
normal baseline (normal is approx 30-40 seconds). If the PTT is significantly higher (e.g.,
over 100 seconds), it indicates over-anticoagulation and a high risk for bleeding. The nurse
must withhold the dose and notify the provider. Massaging the leg is strictly
contraindicated as it can dislodge the clot and cause a pulmonary embolism.
Question 7
A nurse is reviewing assessment data from several clients. For which of the following clients
should the nurse recommend a referral to a dietitian?
A) An older adult client who has a BMI of 24
B) A client who has a nonhealing leg ulcer
C) An older adult client who has presbyopia
D) A client who has an albumin level of 3.7 g/dL
E) A client who has a heart rate of 72/min
Correct Answer: B) A client who has a nonhealing leg ulcer
Rationale: Wound healing requires a high intake of protein, calories, Vitamin C, and Zinc. A
nonhealing ulcer suggests nutritional deficiencies that are preventing tissue repair. A BMI
of 24 and an albumin of 3.7 are within normal limits, and presbyopia (vision change) does
not directly require dietary intervention.
Question 8
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease and is
receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A) Eat 1 g/kg of protein per day
B) Take magnesium hydroxide for indigestion
C) Drink at least 3 L of fluid daily
D) Consume foods high in potassium
E) Use salt substitutes for all meals
Correct Answer: A) Eat 1 g/kg of protein per day
Rationale: While non-dialysis CKD requires protein restriction, clients on hemodialysis lose
protein during the procedure and require a higher intake (approx 1.2-1.5 g/kg/day, though
1g/kg is the targeted minimum for this exam). They must avoid magnesium (renal failure
leads to toxicity), restrict fluids, and strictly avoid high potassium foods.
Question 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the
following factors places the client at the highest risk for aspiration?
A) Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding
B) A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
C) Receiving a high osmolarity formula
, 4
D) A residual of 65 mL 1 hr postprandial
E) The use of a small-bore feeding tube
Correct Answer: B) A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease
Rationale: GERD involves the backward flow of stomach contents into the esophagus.
During tube feedings, this increases the risk that formula will be regurgitated and inhaled
into the lungs (aspiration). High-Fowler's position actually reduces this risk.
Question 10
A nurse is providing prenatal teaching to a client who is at 12 weeks of gestation. The nurse
should tell the client that she will undergo which of the following screening tests at 16 weeks of
gestation?
A) Chorionic villus sampling
B) Cervical cultures for chlamydia
C) Nonstress test
D) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)
E) Group B Streptococcus culture
Correct Answer: D) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein- 16 to 18 weeks
Rationale: MSAFP is a screening test used to detect neural tube defects or chromosomal
abnormalities. The optimal time for this test is between 16 and 18 weeks of gestation. CVS
is done earlier (10-12 weeks), and the Nonstress test is done much later in the third
trimester.
Question 11
A nurse is caring for a client who is on bed rest. The nurse should recognize that which of the
following findings is a complication of immobility?
A) Decreased serum calcium levels
B) Increased blood pressure
C) Swollen area on calf
D) Urinary frequency
E) Increased bowel sounds
Correct Answer: C) Swollen area on calf
Rationale: Immobility leads to venous stasis, which significantly increases the risk of deep-
vein thrombosis (DVT). A swollen, tender, or red calf is a classic indicator of a DVT.
Immobility actually causes increased serum calcium (bone demineralization) and
orthostatic hypotension.
Question 12
A nurse in an acute care mental health facility is participating in a medication-education group.
The leader of the group uses a laissez-faire leadership style. Which of the following actions
should the nurse expect from the leader?
A) The leader encourages members to remain silent until questions are called for
