RN VATI PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2026 | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS |
ALREADY GRADED A+ | LATEST EDITION | VERIFIED ANSWERS
Question 1
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has chronic kidney disease and a low
hemoglobin level. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for epoetin alfa for which of the
following reasons?
A) To dissolve existing micro-clots in the renal tubules.
B) To supplement iron stores lost during hemodialysis.
C) To stimulate red blood cell production due to reduced endogenous erythropoietin.
D) To treat acute blood loss following a renal biopsy.
E) To increase the white blood cell count to prevent infection.
Correct Answer: C) To stimulate red blood cell production due to reduced endogenous
erythropoietin.
Rationale: Epoetin alfa is a synthetic form of erythropoietin, a hormone produced by the
kidneys that signals the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. In chronic kidney disease,
erythropoietin production is diminished, leading to anemia. Epoetin alfa effectively treats
this specific type of anemia by mimicking the natural hormone.
Question 2
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for cromolyn sodium and a
bronchodilator for the management of asthma. Which of the following instructions should the
nurse include?
A) Use the cromolyn first to reduce inflammation before the bronchodilator.
B) Use the bronchodilator first to open the airways before using the cromolyn.
C) Mix the two medications in a single nebulizer cup to ensure synergy.
D) Use the cromolyn only during an acute asthma attack.
E) Wait at least 30 minutes between the use of the two inhalers.
Correct Answer: B) Opens airways before using cromolyn for asthma
Rationale: When a client is prescribed both a bronchodilator and an inhaled non-steroidal
medication like cromolyn, the bronchodilator should be used first. This opens the
bronchioles, allowing the second medication (cromolyn) to penetrate deeper into the lung
tissue for maximum effectiveness. Cromolyn is a prophylactic agent and is not effective for
treating acute attacks.
Question 3
A nurse is preparing to administer mannitol 25% via IV bolus to a client who has a traumatic
brain injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the
medication is effective?
A) Increased heart rate
B) Decreased intracranial pressure
C) Increased skin turgor
D) Decreased serum osmolality
, 2
E) Decreased urinary output
Correct Answer: B) Osmotic diuretic for increased intracranial pressure
Rationale: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that draws fluid from the brain tissue into the
vascular space to be excreted by the kidneys. It is primarily used to reduce intracranial
pressure (ICP) and intraocular pressure. A decrease in ICP manifestations (such as
improved level of consciousness) indicates therapeutic effectiveness.
Question 4
A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who ingested a toxic dose of
acetaminophen 6 hours ago. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to
administer?
A) Naloxone
B) Flumazenil
C) Acetylcysteine
D) Atropine
E) Protamine sulfate
Correct Answer: C) Antidote for acetaminophen overdose
Rationale: Acetylcysteine is the specific antidote for acetaminophen toxicity. It works by
restoring glutathione levels in the liver, which helps neutralize the toxic metabolite of
acetaminophen (NAPQI), thereby preventing or minimizing severe liver damage.
Question 5
A nurse is reviewing the medication history of a client who has a new prescription for
nitroglycerin. The nurse should identify that which of the following medications is
contraindicated?
A) Warfarin
B) Sildenafil
C) Furosemide
D) Metoprolol
E) Atorvastatin
Correct Answer: B) Causes severe hypotension when taken with nitrates
Rationale: Sildenafil (a phosphodiesterase inhibitor) and nitrates (like nitroglycerin) both
cause significant vasodilation. When taken together, they can lead to life-threatening
hypotension and a massive drop in cardiac output. This combination is strictly
contraindicated.
Question 6
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for long-term prednisone therapy for
rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following supplements should the nurse advise the client to
take?
A) Vitamin K and Zinc
, 3
B) Iron and Folic acid
C) Calcium and Vitamin D
D) Magnesium and Vitamin B12
E) Potassium and Sodium
Correct Answer: C) Long-term use requires calcium and vitamin D supplements for
osteoporosis risk
Rationale: Glucocorticoids like prednisone interfere with calcium absorption and stimulate
osteoclast activity, significantly increasing the risk of bone loss and osteoporosis. Clients on
long-term therapy should take calcium and Vitamin D supplements and engage in weight-
bearing exercises to protect bone density.
Question 7
A nurse is assessing a client who is taking high-dose aspirin for chronic pain. Which of the
following findings should the nurse identify as an early sign of aspirin toxicity (salicylism)?
A) Peripheral edema
B) Tinnitus
C) Weight gain
D) Constipation
E) Blurred vision
Correct Answer: B) Monitor for tinnitus as a sign of toxicity
Rationale: Tinnitus (ringing in the ears) is a classic and often the first sign of salicylate
toxicity. Other signs include sweating, headache, and dizziness. If tinnitus occurs, the client
should notify the provider, and the dose should likely be reduced or held.
Question 8
A nurse is preparing to administer a sublingual medication to a client. Which of the following
instructions should the nurse provide?
A) "Swallow the tablet with a full glass of water."
B) "Chew the tablet thoroughly before swallowing."
C) "Place the tablet under your tongue until it is fully dissolved."
D) "Hold the tablet between your cheek and gum."
E) "Drink a carbonated beverage to help the medication absorb."
Correct Answer: C) Administer under the tongue for direct absorption
Rationale: Sublingual administration involves placing the drug under the tongue, where it is
absorbed directly into the systemic circulation via the highly vascular oral mucosa. This
bypasses the digestive system and the first-pass effect of the liver. The client should not
swallow or chew the medication.
Question 9
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled for a colonoscopy and is to take a
polyethylene glycol-electrolyte solution. Which of the following statements should the nurse
, 4
include?
A) "You may experience abdominal bloating and distension."
B) "You should expect your stools to be thick and green."
C) "The solution will take approximately 24 hours to begin working."
D) "Drink the solution slowly over a period of 12 hours."
E) "This medication will decrease the frequency of your bowel movements."
Correct Answer: A) Used for bowel cleansing before a colonoscopy, may cause bloating
Rationale: Polyethylene glycol-electrolyte solution is an osmotic laxative used for total bowel
cleansing. It induces rapid, watery diarrhea. Common side effects include abdominal
fullness, bloating, and nausea due to the large volume of fluid (usually 4 liters) that must be
consumed.
Question 10
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for allopurinol to treat gout. Which of the
following instructions should the nurse include?
A) "Limit your fluid intake to 1 liter per day."
B) "Drink at least 2 liters of fluid daily."
C) "Take the medication only when you feel an acute gout attack starting."
D) "You may notice a decrease in urinary output while on this drug."
E) "Expect your skin to turn a slightly yellow color."
Correct Answer: B) Drink 2 liters of fluid daily to prevent renal damage
Rationale: Allopurinol reduces the production of uric acid. High levels of uric acid can lead
to the formation of uric acid stones in the kidneys. Increasing fluid intake to 2-3 liters per
day helps flush the kidneys and prevents renal stone formation and injury.
Question 11
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking ciprofloxacin for a urinary tract infection. Which of
the following reports by the client should the nurse identify as a priority?
A) Dark-colored urine
B) Pain or inflammation in the Achilles tendon area
C) A metallic taste in the mouth
D) Mild nausea after taking the dose
E) Increased sensitivity to sunlight
Correct Answer: B) Monitor for tendon pain or inflammation
Rationale: Fluoroquinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, carry a boxed warning due to the
increased risk of tendonitis and tendon rupture. This can occur even after the medication is
discontinued. Pain, swelling, or inflammation in a tendon area must be reported
immediately, and the medication should be stopped.
Question 12
A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of omeprazole therapy for a client who has
ALREADY GRADED A+ | LATEST EDITION | VERIFIED ANSWERS
Question 1
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has chronic kidney disease and a low
hemoglobin level. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for epoetin alfa for which of the
following reasons?
A) To dissolve existing micro-clots in the renal tubules.
B) To supplement iron stores lost during hemodialysis.
C) To stimulate red blood cell production due to reduced endogenous erythropoietin.
D) To treat acute blood loss following a renal biopsy.
E) To increase the white blood cell count to prevent infection.
Correct Answer: C) To stimulate red blood cell production due to reduced endogenous
erythropoietin.
Rationale: Epoetin alfa is a synthetic form of erythropoietin, a hormone produced by the
kidneys that signals the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. In chronic kidney disease,
erythropoietin production is diminished, leading to anemia. Epoetin alfa effectively treats
this specific type of anemia by mimicking the natural hormone.
Question 2
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for cromolyn sodium and a
bronchodilator for the management of asthma. Which of the following instructions should the
nurse include?
A) Use the cromolyn first to reduce inflammation before the bronchodilator.
B) Use the bronchodilator first to open the airways before using the cromolyn.
C) Mix the two medications in a single nebulizer cup to ensure synergy.
D) Use the cromolyn only during an acute asthma attack.
E) Wait at least 30 minutes between the use of the two inhalers.
Correct Answer: B) Opens airways before using cromolyn for asthma
Rationale: When a client is prescribed both a bronchodilator and an inhaled non-steroidal
medication like cromolyn, the bronchodilator should be used first. This opens the
bronchioles, allowing the second medication (cromolyn) to penetrate deeper into the lung
tissue for maximum effectiveness. Cromolyn is a prophylactic agent and is not effective for
treating acute attacks.
Question 3
A nurse is preparing to administer mannitol 25% via IV bolus to a client who has a traumatic
brain injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the
medication is effective?
A) Increased heart rate
B) Decreased intracranial pressure
C) Increased skin turgor
D) Decreased serum osmolality
, 2
E) Decreased urinary output
Correct Answer: B) Osmotic diuretic for increased intracranial pressure
Rationale: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that draws fluid from the brain tissue into the
vascular space to be excreted by the kidneys. It is primarily used to reduce intracranial
pressure (ICP) and intraocular pressure. A decrease in ICP manifestations (such as
improved level of consciousness) indicates therapeutic effectiveness.
Question 4
A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who ingested a toxic dose of
acetaminophen 6 hours ago. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to
administer?
A) Naloxone
B) Flumazenil
C) Acetylcysteine
D) Atropine
E) Protamine sulfate
Correct Answer: C) Antidote for acetaminophen overdose
Rationale: Acetylcysteine is the specific antidote for acetaminophen toxicity. It works by
restoring glutathione levels in the liver, which helps neutralize the toxic metabolite of
acetaminophen (NAPQI), thereby preventing or minimizing severe liver damage.
Question 5
A nurse is reviewing the medication history of a client who has a new prescription for
nitroglycerin. The nurse should identify that which of the following medications is
contraindicated?
A) Warfarin
B) Sildenafil
C) Furosemide
D) Metoprolol
E) Atorvastatin
Correct Answer: B) Causes severe hypotension when taken with nitrates
Rationale: Sildenafil (a phosphodiesterase inhibitor) and nitrates (like nitroglycerin) both
cause significant vasodilation. When taken together, they can lead to life-threatening
hypotension and a massive drop in cardiac output. This combination is strictly
contraindicated.
Question 6
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for long-term prednisone therapy for
rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following supplements should the nurse advise the client to
take?
A) Vitamin K and Zinc
, 3
B) Iron and Folic acid
C) Calcium and Vitamin D
D) Magnesium and Vitamin B12
E) Potassium and Sodium
Correct Answer: C) Long-term use requires calcium and vitamin D supplements for
osteoporosis risk
Rationale: Glucocorticoids like prednisone interfere with calcium absorption and stimulate
osteoclast activity, significantly increasing the risk of bone loss and osteoporosis. Clients on
long-term therapy should take calcium and Vitamin D supplements and engage in weight-
bearing exercises to protect bone density.
Question 7
A nurse is assessing a client who is taking high-dose aspirin for chronic pain. Which of the
following findings should the nurse identify as an early sign of aspirin toxicity (salicylism)?
A) Peripheral edema
B) Tinnitus
C) Weight gain
D) Constipation
E) Blurred vision
Correct Answer: B) Monitor for tinnitus as a sign of toxicity
Rationale: Tinnitus (ringing in the ears) is a classic and often the first sign of salicylate
toxicity. Other signs include sweating, headache, and dizziness. If tinnitus occurs, the client
should notify the provider, and the dose should likely be reduced or held.
Question 8
A nurse is preparing to administer a sublingual medication to a client. Which of the following
instructions should the nurse provide?
A) "Swallow the tablet with a full glass of water."
B) "Chew the tablet thoroughly before swallowing."
C) "Place the tablet under your tongue until it is fully dissolved."
D) "Hold the tablet between your cheek and gum."
E) "Drink a carbonated beverage to help the medication absorb."
Correct Answer: C) Administer under the tongue for direct absorption
Rationale: Sublingual administration involves placing the drug under the tongue, where it is
absorbed directly into the systemic circulation via the highly vascular oral mucosa. This
bypasses the digestive system and the first-pass effect of the liver. The client should not
swallow or chew the medication.
Question 9
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled for a colonoscopy and is to take a
polyethylene glycol-electrolyte solution. Which of the following statements should the nurse
, 4
include?
A) "You may experience abdominal bloating and distension."
B) "You should expect your stools to be thick and green."
C) "The solution will take approximately 24 hours to begin working."
D) "Drink the solution slowly over a period of 12 hours."
E) "This medication will decrease the frequency of your bowel movements."
Correct Answer: A) Used for bowel cleansing before a colonoscopy, may cause bloating
Rationale: Polyethylene glycol-electrolyte solution is an osmotic laxative used for total bowel
cleansing. It induces rapid, watery diarrhea. Common side effects include abdominal
fullness, bloating, and nausea due to the large volume of fluid (usually 4 liters) that must be
consumed.
Question 10
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for allopurinol to treat gout. Which of the
following instructions should the nurse include?
A) "Limit your fluid intake to 1 liter per day."
B) "Drink at least 2 liters of fluid daily."
C) "Take the medication only when you feel an acute gout attack starting."
D) "You may notice a decrease in urinary output while on this drug."
E) "Expect your skin to turn a slightly yellow color."
Correct Answer: B) Drink 2 liters of fluid daily to prevent renal damage
Rationale: Allopurinol reduces the production of uric acid. High levels of uric acid can lead
to the formation of uric acid stones in the kidneys. Increasing fluid intake to 2-3 liters per
day helps flush the kidneys and prevents renal stone formation and injury.
Question 11
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking ciprofloxacin for a urinary tract infection. Which of
the following reports by the client should the nurse identify as a priority?
A) Dark-colored urine
B) Pain or inflammation in the Achilles tendon area
C) A metallic taste in the mouth
D) Mild nausea after taking the dose
E) Increased sensitivity to sunlight
Correct Answer: B) Monitor for tendon pain or inflammation
Rationale: Fluoroquinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, carry a boxed warning due to the
increased risk of tendonitis and tendon rupture. This can occur even after the medication is
discontinued. Pain, swelling, or inflammation in a tendon area must be reported
immediately, and the medication should be stopped.
Question 12
A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of omeprazole therapy for a client who has
