VATI GREEN LIGHT PREDICTOR EXAM 2026 | 300+ QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+ | LATEST RELEASE
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) of the left lower extremity.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Position the client with the affected extremity lower than the heart
B) Withhold heparin IV infusion for a PTT of 110 seconds
C) Administer acetaminophen for calf pain
D) Massage the affected extremity every 4 hr
E) Maintain the client on strict bed rest for 48 hours
Correct Answer: B) Withhold heparin IV infusion PTT- 30-40 seconds; x2 if on heparin
Rationale: The therapeutic range for PTT while on heparin is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the
normal baseline (normal is approx 30-40 seconds). If the PTT is significantly higher (e.g.,
over 100 seconds), it indicates over-anticoagulation and a high risk for spontaneous
hemorrhage. The nurse must withhold the infusion and notify the provider. Massaging the
leg (Option D) is strictly contraindicated as it can dislodge the thrombus, leading to a
pulmonary embolism.
Question 2
A nurse is reviewing assessment data from several clients. For which of the following clients
should the nurse recommend a referral to a registered dietitian?
A) An older adult client who has a BMI of 24
B) A client who has a nonhealing leg ulcer
C) An older adult client who has presbyopia
D) A client who has an albumin level of 3.7 g/dL
E) A client who has a sodium level of 140 mEq/L
Correct Answer: B) A client who has a nonhealing leg ulcer
Rationale: Wound healing requires significantly increased intake of protein, calories,
Vitamin C, and Zinc. A nonhealing ulcer suggests nutritional deficiencies are preventing
tissue repair. A BMI of 24 and an albumin of 3.7 (Normal 3.4-5.4) are within normal limits.
Presbyopia is a normal age-related change in vision and does not require a dietitian
referral.
Question 3
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease (CKD) and is
receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A) Eat 1 g/kg of protein per day
B) Take magnesium hydroxide for indigestion
C) Drink at least 3 L of fluid daily
D) Consume foods high in potassium to prevent cramping
E) Increase intake of phosphorus-rich dairy products
Correct Answer: A) Eat 1 g/kg of protein per day
, 2
Rationale: While non-dialysis CKD requires protein restriction, clients on hemodialysis lose
protein during the procedure and require a slightly higher intake (approx. 1.0–1.2
g/kg/day) to prevent malnutrition. Clients on dialysis must avoid magnesium (renal failure
leads to toxicity), restrict fluids (Option C), and strictly avoid high potassium/phosphorus
foods due to the kidneys' inability to excrete them.
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the
following history findings places the client at the highest risk for aspiration?
A) Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding
B) A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
C) Receiving a high osmolarity formula
D) A gastric residual of 65 mL 1 hr postprandial
E) The use of a small-bore feeding tube
Correct Answer: B) A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease
Rationale: GERD involves the backward flow of stomach contents into the esophagus.
During tube feedings, this increases the risk that formula will be regurgitated and inhaled
into the lungs (aspiration). High-Fowler's position (Option A) actually reduces this risk.
Residuals under 100 mL are generally considered normal and do not indicate high
aspiration risk.
Question 5
A nurse is providing prenatal teaching to a client who is at 12 weeks of gestation. The nurse
should tell the client that she will undergo which of the following screening tests at 16 weeks of
gestation?
A) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
B) Cervical cultures for chlamydia
C) Nonstress test (NST)
D) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)
E) Group B Streptococcus (GBS) culture
Correct Answer: D) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein- 16 to 18 weeks
Rationale: MSAFP is a screening test used to detect neural tube defects or chromosomal
abnormalities. The optimal window for this test is between 16 and 18 weeks of gestation.
CVS is performed between 10-12 weeks; cervical cultures are done at the first visit; and the
NST is typically performed after 28 weeks for high-risk pregnancies.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a client who is on bed rest. The nurse should recognize that which of the
following findings is a complication of immobility?
A) Decreased serum calcium levels
B) Increased blood pressure
, 3
C) Swollen area on calf
D) Urinary frequency
E) Increased bowel sounds
Correct Answer: C) Swollen area on calf
Rationale: Immobility leads to venous stasis, which significantly increases the risk of deep-
vein thrombosis (DVT). A swollen, tender, or red calf is a classic indicator. Immobility
actually causes increased serum calcium (bone demineralization) and orthostatic
hypotension, as well as decreased peristalsis (constipation).
Question 7
A nurse in an acute care mental health facility is participating in a group using a laissez-faire
leadership style. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect from the leader?
A) The leader encourages members to remain silent until questions are called for
B) The leader lectures about medication adverse effects for the whole session
C) The leader controls all dialogue and sets strict rules
D) The leader has group members vote on what they would like to learn about
E) The leader assigns tasks to each member without consultation
Correct Answer: D) The leader has group members vote on what they would like to learn
about during the session
Rationale: Laissez-faire leadership is "hands-off." The leader provides little to no direction
and allows the group to make decisions or sets very few boundaries. Allowing the group to
vote on the curriculum is a hallmark of this non-directive style.
Question 8
A nurse is providing teaching about digoxin administration to the parents of a toddler who has
heart failure. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
A) "You can add the medication to a half-cup of your child's favorite juice."
B) "Repeat the dose if your child vomits within 1 hour after taking medication."
C) "Limit your child's potassium intake while she is taking this medication."
D) "Have your child drink a small glass of water after swallowing the medication."
E) "Administer the medication if the heart rate is 50/min."
Correct Answer: D) "Have your child drink a small glass of water after swallowing the
medication."
Rationale: Giving water after the dose helps ensure the medication is fully swallowed and
prevents irritation of the oral mucosa. Digoxin should never be mixed with food/juice
because if the child doesn't finish it, the dose is inaccurate. A dose should NOT be repeated
if the child vomits, as vomiting is a primary sign of toxicity.
Question 9
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a depressive disorder and a new prescription for
phenelzine. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
, 4
A) Grapefruit
B) Spinach
C) Cottage cheese
D) Smoked salmon
E) Fresh chicken breast
Correct Answer: D) Smoked salmon
Rationale: Phenelzine is an MAOI. Clients taking MAOIs must avoid foods high in
tyramine to prevent a hypertensive crisis. This includes smoked, cured, aged, or fermented
meats and cheeses. Smoked salmon is high in tyramine; fresh chicken and cottage cheese
are generally safe.
Question 10
A nurse is planning care for a client who has COPD and weighs 99 lb. The provider has
prescribed a diet of 1.5 g protein/kg/day. How many grams of protein per day should the nurse
include?
A) 45
B) 68
C) 99
D) 150
E) 60
Correct Answer: B) 68
Rationale: Step 1: Convert weight to kg (99 lb / 2.2 = 45 kg). Step 2: Multiply weight by
prescribed protein (45 kg x 1.5 g = 67.5 g). Rounded to the nearest whole number, the daily
protein requirement is 68 grams.
Question 11
A nurse is planning care for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing mania. Which
of the following interventions should the nurse include?
A) Encourage the client to spend time in the day room with others
B) Withdraw the client's TV privileges if he does not attend group therapy
C) Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods
D) Place the client in seclusion when he exhibits signs of anxiety
E) Provide the client with three large, high-fiber meals a day
Correct Answer: C) Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods
Rationale: A client in acute mania is at high risk for exhaustion due to excessive physical
activity and lack of sleep. The nurse must promote rest to prevent physical collapse. Manic
clients should be in a low-stimulus environment; "finger foods" are better than large meals
to maintain nutrition on the move.
Question 12
A parish nurse is leading a support group for clients whose family members have committed
ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+ | LATEST RELEASE
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) of the left lower extremity.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Position the client with the affected extremity lower than the heart
B) Withhold heparin IV infusion for a PTT of 110 seconds
C) Administer acetaminophen for calf pain
D) Massage the affected extremity every 4 hr
E) Maintain the client on strict bed rest for 48 hours
Correct Answer: B) Withhold heparin IV infusion PTT- 30-40 seconds; x2 if on heparin
Rationale: The therapeutic range for PTT while on heparin is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the
normal baseline (normal is approx 30-40 seconds). If the PTT is significantly higher (e.g.,
over 100 seconds), it indicates over-anticoagulation and a high risk for spontaneous
hemorrhage. The nurse must withhold the infusion and notify the provider. Massaging the
leg (Option D) is strictly contraindicated as it can dislodge the thrombus, leading to a
pulmonary embolism.
Question 2
A nurse is reviewing assessment data from several clients. For which of the following clients
should the nurse recommend a referral to a registered dietitian?
A) An older adult client who has a BMI of 24
B) A client who has a nonhealing leg ulcer
C) An older adult client who has presbyopia
D) A client who has an albumin level of 3.7 g/dL
E) A client who has a sodium level of 140 mEq/L
Correct Answer: B) A client who has a nonhealing leg ulcer
Rationale: Wound healing requires significantly increased intake of protein, calories,
Vitamin C, and Zinc. A nonhealing ulcer suggests nutritional deficiencies are preventing
tissue repair. A BMI of 24 and an albumin of 3.7 (Normal 3.4-5.4) are within normal limits.
Presbyopia is a normal age-related change in vision and does not require a dietitian
referral.
Question 3
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease (CKD) and is
receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A) Eat 1 g/kg of protein per day
B) Take magnesium hydroxide for indigestion
C) Drink at least 3 L of fluid daily
D) Consume foods high in potassium to prevent cramping
E) Increase intake of phosphorus-rich dairy products
Correct Answer: A) Eat 1 g/kg of protein per day
, 2
Rationale: While non-dialysis CKD requires protein restriction, clients on hemodialysis lose
protein during the procedure and require a slightly higher intake (approx. 1.0–1.2
g/kg/day) to prevent malnutrition. Clients on dialysis must avoid magnesium (renal failure
leads to toxicity), restrict fluids (Option C), and strictly avoid high potassium/phosphorus
foods due to the kidneys' inability to excrete them.
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the
following history findings places the client at the highest risk for aspiration?
A) Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding
B) A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
C) Receiving a high osmolarity formula
D) A gastric residual of 65 mL 1 hr postprandial
E) The use of a small-bore feeding tube
Correct Answer: B) A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease
Rationale: GERD involves the backward flow of stomach contents into the esophagus.
During tube feedings, this increases the risk that formula will be regurgitated and inhaled
into the lungs (aspiration). High-Fowler's position (Option A) actually reduces this risk.
Residuals under 100 mL are generally considered normal and do not indicate high
aspiration risk.
Question 5
A nurse is providing prenatal teaching to a client who is at 12 weeks of gestation. The nurse
should tell the client that she will undergo which of the following screening tests at 16 weeks of
gestation?
A) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
B) Cervical cultures for chlamydia
C) Nonstress test (NST)
D) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)
E) Group B Streptococcus (GBS) culture
Correct Answer: D) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein- 16 to 18 weeks
Rationale: MSAFP is a screening test used to detect neural tube defects or chromosomal
abnormalities. The optimal window for this test is between 16 and 18 weeks of gestation.
CVS is performed between 10-12 weeks; cervical cultures are done at the first visit; and the
NST is typically performed after 28 weeks for high-risk pregnancies.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a client who is on bed rest. The nurse should recognize that which of the
following findings is a complication of immobility?
A) Decreased serum calcium levels
B) Increased blood pressure
, 3
C) Swollen area on calf
D) Urinary frequency
E) Increased bowel sounds
Correct Answer: C) Swollen area on calf
Rationale: Immobility leads to venous stasis, which significantly increases the risk of deep-
vein thrombosis (DVT). A swollen, tender, or red calf is a classic indicator. Immobility
actually causes increased serum calcium (bone demineralization) and orthostatic
hypotension, as well as decreased peristalsis (constipation).
Question 7
A nurse in an acute care mental health facility is participating in a group using a laissez-faire
leadership style. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect from the leader?
A) The leader encourages members to remain silent until questions are called for
B) The leader lectures about medication adverse effects for the whole session
C) The leader controls all dialogue and sets strict rules
D) The leader has group members vote on what they would like to learn about
E) The leader assigns tasks to each member without consultation
Correct Answer: D) The leader has group members vote on what they would like to learn
about during the session
Rationale: Laissez-faire leadership is "hands-off." The leader provides little to no direction
and allows the group to make decisions or sets very few boundaries. Allowing the group to
vote on the curriculum is a hallmark of this non-directive style.
Question 8
A nurse is providing teaching about digoxin administration to the parents of a toddler who has
heart failure. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
A) "You can add the medication to a half-cup of your child's favorite juice."
B) "Repeat the dose if your child vomits within 1 hour after taking medication."
C) "Limit your child's potassium intake while she is taking this medication."
D) "Have your child drink a small glass of water after swallowing the medication."
E) "Administer the medication if the heart rate is 50/min."
Correct Answer: D) "Have your child drink a small glass of water after swallowing the
medication."
Rationale: Giving water after the dose helps ensure the medication is fully swallowed and
prevents irritation of the oral mucosa. Digoxin should never be mixed with food/juice
because if the child doesn't finish it, the dose is inaccurate. A dose should NOT be repeated
if the child vomits, as vomiting is a primary sign of toxicity.
Question 9
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a depressive disorder and a new prescription for
phenelzine. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
, 4
A) Grapefruit
B) Spinach
C) Cottage cheese
D) Smoked salmon
E) Fresh chicken breast
Correct Answer: D) Smoked salmon
Rationale: Phenelzine is an MAOI. Clients taking MAOIs must avoid foods high in
tyramine to prevent a hypertensive crisis. This includes smoked, cured, aged, or fermented
meats and cheeses. Smoked salmon is high in tyramine; fresh chicken and cottage cheese
are generally safe.
Question 10
A nurse is planning care for a client who has COPD and weighs 99 lb. The provider has
prescribed a diet of 1.5 g protein/kg/day. How many grams of protein per day should the nurse
include?
A) 45
B) 68
C) 99
D) 150
E) 60
Correct Answer: B) 68
Rationale: Step 1: Convert weight to kg (99 lb / 2.2 = 45 kg). Step 2: Multiply weight by
prescribed protein (45 kg x 1.5 g = 67.5 g). Rounded to the nearest whole number, the daily
protein requirement is 68 grams.
Question 11
A nurse is planning care for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing mania. Which
of the following interventions should the nurse include?
A) Encourage the client to spend time in the day room with others
B) Withdraw the client's TV privileges if he does not attend group therapy
C) Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods
D) Place the client in seclusion when he exhibits signs of anxiety
E) Provide the client with three large, high-fiber meals a day
Correct Answer: C) Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods
Rationale: A client in acute mania is at high risk for exhaustion due to excessive physical
activity and lack of sleep. The nurse must promote rest to prevent physical collapse. Manic
clients should be in a low-stimulus environment; "finger foods" are better than large meals
to maintain nutrition on the move.
Question 12
A parish nurse is leading a support group for clients whose family members have committed
