TEST BANK COMPLETE_ DAVIS ADVANTAGE FOR
MATERNAL-CHILD NURSING CARE 4TH
EDITION, (2026) BY MEREDITH J SCANNELL &
KRISTINE RUGGIERO ALL CHAPTERS 1-31| 7
UNITS| LATEST EDITION WITH DETAILED
ANSWERS| GRADE A+
Antepartum Complications (Questions 1–6)
1. A nurse is caring for a client at 34 weeks gestation with
suspected preeclampsia. Which blood pressure reading meets the
diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia without severe features?
A. 130/80 mm Hg on two occasions 4 hours apart
B. 140/90 mm Hg on two occasions 4 hours apart
C. 150/100 mm Hg once
D. 160/110 mm Hg on two occasions 6 hours apart
Answer: B
Rationale: Preeclampsia is diagnosed when a previously normotensive
client has BP ≥140/90 mm Hg on two occasions at least 4 hours
apart after 20 weeks gestation. Option D indicates severe
features.
,2. A client with gestational diabetes at 32 weeks has a fasting
blood glucose of 105 mg/dL. What should the nurse teach first?
A. Increase insulin dose independently
B. Eat a high-carbohydrate snack before bed
C. Review diet and medication adherence
D. Skip breakfast to lower morning glucose
Answer: C
Rationale: Fasting hyperglycemia may indicate poor diet or
medication compliance. The nurse should first assess adherence,
then collaborate with the provider for insulin adjustment if needed.
Independent dose changes or skipping meals are unsafe.
3. A primigravida at 28 weeks reports painless vaginal bleeding.
The nurse suspects placenta previa. What is the priority action?
A. Perform a digital cervical exam
B. Place the client in a knee-chest position
C. Initiate continuous fetal monitoring and avoid vaginal exam
D. Administer IV oxytocin immediately
Answer: C
Rationale: Painless bleeding in the third trimester suggests placenta
previa. Digital exams can cause catastrophic hemorrhage. The
priority is fetal monitoring and preparation for possible delivery
without manipulation.
,4. A client at 30 weeks with preterm premature rupture of
membranes (PPROM) has a temperature of 38.5°C and foul-smelling
discharge. What complication is most likely?
A. Placental abruption
B. Chorioamnionitis
C. HELLP syndrome
D. Polyhydramnios
Answer: B
Rationale: Fever + foul discharge + PPROM = chorioamnionitis
(intra-amniotic infection), which requires urgent delivery and
antibiotics.
5. A nurse reviews lab values for a client at 35 weeks with severe
preeclampsia: platelets 80,000/mm³, AST 90 U/L, ALT 110 U/L.
Which condition is occurring?
A. HELLP syndrome
B. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
C. Gestational thrombocytopenia
D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Answer: A
Rationale: HELLP = Hemolysis (not listed but implied), Elevated
Liver enzymes (AST/ALT), Low Platelets (<100,000). This is a
severe variant of preeclampsia requiring prompt delivery.
6. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum has ketonuria and weight
loss of 5% of prepregnancy weight. Which intervention is most
, appropriate?
A. Clear liquid diet only
B. IV fluids with thiamine and antiemetics
C. Oral metoclopramide as needed
D. Total parenteral nutrition immediately
Answer: B
Rationale: Ketonuria + significant weight loss indicates severe
hyperemesis. IV hydration, thiamine (to prevent Wernicke’s), and
antiemetics are first-line. Oral intake may not be tolerated
initially.
Labor and Delivery (Questions 7–12)
7. A client in active labor at 6 cm receives epidural anesthesia.
Fifteen minutes later, blood pressure drops to 85/50 mm Hg. What
is the priority nursing action?
A. Increase IV fluid rate
B. Place client in Trendelenburg position
C. Administer epinephrine
D. Turn client to left lateral position and increase fluids
Answer: D
Rationale: Epidural-induced hypotension is managed by left lateral
positioning (improves venous return) and IV fluid bolus.
Trendelenburg is not recommended. Epinephrine is not first-line.
MATERNAL-CHILD NURSING CARE 4TH
EDITION, (2026) BY MEREDITH J SCANNELL &
KRISTINE RUGGIERO ALL CHAPTERS 1-31| 7
UNITS| LATEST EDITION WITH DETAILED
ANSWERS| GRADE A+
Antepartum Complications (Questions 1–6)
1. A nurse is caring for a client at 34 weeks gestation with
suspected preeclampsia. Which blood pressure reading meets the
diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia without severe features?
A. 130/80 mm Hg on two occasions 4 hours apart
B. 140/90 mm Hg on two occasions 4 hours apart
C. 150/100 mm Hg once
D. 160/110 mm Hg on two occasions 6 hours apart
Answer: B
Rationale: Preeclampsia is diagnosed when a previously normotensive
client has BP ≥140/90 mm Hg on two occasions at least 4 hours
apart after 20 weeks gestation. Option D indicates severe
features.
,2. A client with gestational diabetes at 32 weeks has a fasting
blood glucose of 105 mg/dL. What should the nurse teach first?
A. Increase insulin dose independently
B. Eat a high-carbohydrate snack before bed
C. Review diet and medication adherence
D. Skip breakfast to lower morning glucose
Answer: C
Rationale: Fasting hyperglycemia may indicate poor diet or
medication compliance. The nurse should first assess adherence,
then collaborate with the provider for insulin adjustment if needed.
Independent dose changes or skipping meals are unsafe.
3. A primigravida at 28 weeks reports painless vaginal bleeding.
The nurse suspects placenta previa. What is the priority action?
A. Perform a digital cervical exam
B. Place the client in a knee-chest position
C. Initiate continuous fetal monitoring and avoid vaginal exam
D. Administer IV oxytocin immediately
Answer: C
Rationale: Painless bleeding in the third trimester suggests placenta
previa. Digital exams can cause catastrophic hemorrhage. The
priority is fetal monitoring and preparation for possible delivery
without manipulation.
,4. A client at 30 weeks with preterm premature rupture of
membranes (PPROM) has a temperature of 38.5°C and foul-smelling
discharge. What complication is most likely?
A. Placental abruption
B. Chorioamnionitis
C. HELLP syndrome
D. Polyhydramnios
Answer: B
Rationale: Fever + foul discharge + PPROM = chorioamnionitis
(intra-amniotic infection), which requires urgent delivery and
antibiotics.
5. A nurse reviews lab values for a client at 35 weeks with severe
preeclampsia: platelets 80,000/mm³, AST 90 U/L, ALT 110 U/L.
Which condition is occurring?
A. HELLP syndrome
B. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
C. Gestational thrombocytopenia
D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Answer: A
Rationale: HELLP = Hemolysis (not listed but implied), Elevated
Liver enzymes (AST/ALT), Low Platelets (<100,000). This is a
severe variant of preeclampsia requiring prompt delivery.
6. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum has ketonuria and weight
loss of 5% of prepregnancy weight. Which intervention is most
, appropriate?
A. Clear liquid diet only
B. IV fluids with thiamine and antiemetics
C. Oral metoclopramide as needed
D. Total parenteral nutrition immediately
Answer: B
Rationale: Ketonuria + significant weight loss indicates severe
hyperemesis. IV hydration, thiamine (to prevent Wernicke’s), and
antiemetics are first-line. Oral intake may not be tolerated
initially.
Labor and Delivery (Questions 7–12)
7. A client in active labor at 6 cm receives epidural anesthesia.
Fifteen minutes later, blood pressure drops to 85/50 mm Hg. What
is the priority nursing action?
A. Increase IV fluid rate
B. Place client in Trendelenburg position
C. Administer epinephrine
D. Turn client to left lateral position and increase fluids
Answer: D
Rationale: Epidural-induced hypotension is managed by left lateral
positioning (improves venous return) and IV fluid bolus.
Trendelenburg is not recommended. Epinephrine is not first-line.
