ATI FUNDAMENTALS FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS | GRADED A+
| 2026 VERSION | LATEST UPDATE
Question 1
A nurse is admitting a client who will undergo a craniotomy. During the planning phase of the
nursing process, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Collect information about past health problems
B) Determine whether the client has met specific goals
C) Identify the client's specific health problem
D) Establish client outcomes
E) Implement nursing interventions
Correct Answer: D) Establish client outcomes
Rationale: The nursing process consists of five steps: Assessment, Analysis/Diagnosis,
Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation. The planning phase involves setting priorities,
establishing reach-and-measure goals (outcomes), and selecting appropriate interventions.
Collecting information (A) is the Assessment phase; identifying the problem (C) is the
Analysis phase; and determining if goals were met (B) is the Evaluation phase.
Question 2
A client who reports shortness of breath requests the nurse's help in changing positions. After
repositioning the client, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
A) Encourage the client to take deep breaths
B) Observe the client's rate, depth, and character of respirations
C) Prepare to administer oxygen
D) Give the client a backrub to promote relaxation
E) Document the intervention in the medical record
Correct Answer: B) Observe the client's rate, depth, and character of respirations
Rationale: According to the nursing process, evaluation and assessment of the client's
response to an intervention is the priority. After an intervention (repositioning), the nurse
must immediately assess the effectiveness of that intervention by observing the respiratory
status to ensure the client’s distress is resolving before taking further action.
Question 3
A nurse is collecting health history data from a client who is deaf and uses American Sign
Language (ASL) to communicate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when
working with an ASL interpreter?
A) Face away from the client to avoid distractions
B) Pace speech to allow time for the interpreter to convey the words
C) Make eye contact with the interpreter when explaining the procedure
D) Stand in the background while the interpreter translates the message
E) Speak in a loud voice to ensure the interpreter hears clearly
Correct Answer: B) Pace speech to allow time for the interpreter to convey the words
Rationale: When using an interpreter, the nurse should speak directly to the client (not the
, 2
interpreter) to maintain a therapeutic relationship and keep the client the center of care.
Speech should be paced naturally but with enough pause for the interpreter to translate
accurately. The nurse should continue to look at the client to observe non-verbal cues.
Question 4
A nurse manager is teaching newly licensed nurses about healthcare-associated infections
(HAIs). Which of the following routes of infection should the manager identify as an iatrogenic
HAI?
A) Infection acquired from improper hand hygiene by staff
B) Infection acquired by multi-drug resistant organisms
C) Infection acquired by inappropriate waste disposal
D) Infection acquired from a diagnostic procedure
E) Infection acquired from a visitor with a cold
Correct Answer: D) Infection acquired from a diagnostic procedure
Rationale: An iatrogenic infection is a type of HAI that results directly from a diagnostic or
therapeutic procedure (e.g., a biopsy or cardiac catheterization). This is distinct from
exogenous infections (from microorganisms outside the individual) or endogenous
infections (when the client's flora becomes altered and overgrows).
Question 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a Clostridium difficile infection and is in contact isolation.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Wear gloves when changing the client's gown
B) Use alcohol-based sanitizers to cleanse the hands
C) Wear a mask when assisting the client with his meal tray
D) Place the client on complete bed rest
E) Use a dedicated stethoscope for this client only
Correct Answer: A) Wear gloves when changing the client's gown
Rationale: Contact precautions require the use of gloves and a gown when entering the
room or having contact with the client’s environment. Alcohol-based sanitizers (B) are
ineffective against the spores of C. difficile; the nurse must use soap and water. A mask (C)
is for droplet or airborne precautions, not standard contact isolation. Bed rest (D) is not
required and increases the risk of immobility complications.
Question 6
A nurse is reviewing the use of side rails with an Assistive Personnel (AP). Which of the
following statements by the AP indicates that further teaching is required?
A) "I should not leave all 4 side rails up unless there is a prescription for restraints."
B) "An alert client will be the safest if I raise the 2 upper side rails at the head of the bed."
C) "If the client seems confused, I'll raise all 4 side rails so that he doesn't hurt himself."
D) "If a client is sedated, I should raise all 4 side rails to prevent a fall out of bed."
, 3
E) "I will check the client's skin frequently if side rails are used."
Correct Answer: C) "If the client seems confused, I'll raise all 4 side rails so that he doesn't
hurt himself."
Rationale: Raising all four side rails is considered a physical restraint because it restricts the
client's freedom of movement. For a confused client, this can actually increase the risk of
injury, as they may attempt to climb over the rails and fall from a greater height.
Restraints require a provider’s order and should only be used after less restrictive
measures fail.
Question 7
A nurse is identifying which diseases require airborne precautions. Which of the following
should the nurse include?
A) Clostridium difficile
B) MRSA
C) Influenza
D) Varicella
E) Pneumonia
Correct Answer: D) Varicella
Rationale: Airborne precautions are required for pathogens that remain suspended in the
air for long periods (droplet nuclei smaller than 5 microns). Standard airborne diseases
include Varicella (chickenpox), Tuberculosis (TB), and Measles (Rubeola). C-diff and
MRSA require contact precautions, while Influenza and Pneumonia typically require
droplet precautions.
Question 8
A nurse in a provider's office is measuring a client and notes a loss in height from the previous
year. The nurse should identify this as a manifestation of which of the following?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Scoliosis
C) Kyphosis
D) Lordosis
E) Arthritis
Correct Answer: A) Osteoporosis
Rationale: A loss of height is a classic early sign of osteoporosis. It occurs due to the loss of
calcium and bone density in the vertebrae, which leads to compression fractures and the
eventual collapse of the spinal column. Scoliosis (B) is a lateral curve; Kyphosis (C) is a
"hunchback" curve; and Lordosis (D) is an exaggerated lumbar curve.
Question 9
The nurse is planning care for a patient with severe burns. Which of the following fluid
imbalances is this patient at the highest risk for developing?
, 4
A) Intracellular fluid deficit
B) Intracellular fluid overload
C) Extracellular fluid deficit
D) Interstitial fluid deficit
E) Total body water excess
Correct Answer: A) Intracellular fluid deficit
Rationale: Severe burns damage cell membranes and cause massive fluid shifts. Fluid moves
from the intracellular and intravascular compartments into the interstitial spaces (third-
spacing), resulting in a profound intracellular fluid deficit and hypovolemic shock.
Question 10
A nurse is preparing to obtain a stool specimen from a client who is taking iron supplements.
Which of the following colors should the nurse expect the stool to be?
A) Red
B) Black
C) Clay-colored
D) Green
E) Pale yellow
Correct Answer: B) Black
Rationale: Iron supplements commonly cause the stool to become black and tarry in
appearance (melena-like). This is a harmless side effect of the medication but must be
distinguished from GI bleeding. Clay-colored stool (C) indicates biliary obstruction, and
red stool (A) indicates lower GI bleeding or certain foods.
Question 11
A nurse is obtaining a health history from a newly admitted client who has chronic knee pain.
What should the nurse include in the pain assessment? (Select all that apply)
1. Pain history, including location, intensity, and quality
2. Client's purposeful body movement in arranging papers
3. Pain pattern, including precipitating and alleviating factors
4. Vital signs such as blood pressure and heart rate
5. The family's statement about the client's pain
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 1, 2, and 3
C) 1, 3, and 4
D) 1, 3, and 5
E) All of the above
Correct Answer: A) 1 and 3 only
| 2026 VERSION | LATEST UPDATE
Question 1
A nurse is admitting a client who will undergo a craniotomy. During the planning phase of the
nursing process, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Collect information about past health problems
B) Determine whether the client has met specific goals
C) Identify the client's specific health problem
D) Establish client outcomes
E) Implement nursing interventions
Correct Answer: D) Establish client outcomes
Rationale: The nursing process consists of five steps: Assessment, Analysis/Diagnosis,
Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation. The planning phase involves setting priorities,
establishing reach-and-measure goals (outcomes), and selecting appropriate interventions.
Collecting information (A) is the Assessment phase; identifying the problem (C) is the
Analysis phase; and determining if goals were met (B) is the Evaluation phase.
Question 2
A client who reports shortness of breath requests the nurse's help in changing positions. After
repositioning the client, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
A) Encourage the client to take deep breaths
B) Observe the client's rate, depth, and character of respirations
C) Prepare to administer oxygen
D) Give the client a backrub to promote relaxation
E) Document the intervention in the medical record
Correct Answer: B) Observe the client's rate, depth, and character of respirations
Rationale: According to the nursing process, evaluation and assessment of the client's
response to an intervention is the priority. After an intervention (repositioning), the nurse
must immediately assess the effectiveness of that intervention by observing the respiratory
status to ensure the client’s distress is resolving before taking further action.
Question 3
A nurse is collecting health history data from a client who is deaf and uses American Sign
Language (ASL) to communicate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when
working with an ASL interpreter?
A) Face away from the client to avoid distractions
B) Pace speech to allow time for the interpreter to convey the words
C) Make eye contact with the interpreter when explaining the procedure
D) Stand in the background while the interpreter translates the message
E) Speak in a loud voice to ensure the interpreter hears clearly
Correct Answer: B) Pace speech to allow time for the interpreter to convey the words
Rationale: When using an interpreter, the nurse should speak directly to the client (not the
, 2
interpreter) to maintain a therapeutic relationship and keep the client the center of care.
Speech should be paced naturally but with enough pause for the interpreter to translate
accurately. The nurse should continue to look at the client to observe non-verbal cues.
Question 4
A nurse manager is teaching newly licensed nurses about healthcare-associated infections
(HAIs). Which of the following routes of infection should the manager identify as an iatrogenic
HAI?
A) Infection acquired from improper hand hygiene by staff
B) Infection acquired by multi-drug resistant organisms
C) Infection acquired by inappropriate waste disposal
D) Infection acquired from a diagnostic procedure
E) Infection acquired from a visitor with a cold
Correct Answer: D) Infection acquired from a diagnostic procedure
Rationale: An iatrogenic infection is a type of HAI that results directly from a diagnostic or
therapeutic procedure (e.g., a biopsy or cardiac catheterization). This is distinct from
exogenous infections (from microorganisms outside the individual) or endogenous
infections (when the client's flora becomes altered and overgrows).
Question 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a Clostridium difficile infection and is in contact isolation.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Wear gloves when changing the client's gown
B) Use alcohol-based sanitizers to cleanse the hands
C) Wear a mask when assisting the client with his meal tray
D) Place the client on complete bed rest
E) Use a dedicated stethoscope for this client only
Correct Answer: A) Wear gloves when changing the client's gown
Rationale: Contact precautions require the use of gloves and a gown when entering the
room or having contact with the client’s environment. Alcohol-based sanitizers (B) are
ineffective against the spores of C. difficile; the nurse must use soap and water. A mask (C)
is for droplet or airborne precautions, not standard contact isolation. Bed rest (D) is not
required and increases the risk of immobility complications.
Question 6
A nurse is reviewing the use of side rails with an Assistive Personnel (AP). Which of the
following statements by the AP indicates that further teaching is required?
A) "I should not leave all 4 side rails up unless there is a prescription for restraints."
B) "An alert client will be the safest if I raise the 2 upper side rails at the head of the bed."
C) "If the client seems confused, I'll raise all 4 side rails so that he doesn't hurt himself."
D) "If a client is sedated, I should raise all 4 side rails to prevent a fall out of bed."
, 3
E) "I will check the client's skin frequently if side rails are used."
Correct Answer: C) "If the client seems confused, I'll raise all 4 side rails so that he doesn't
hurt himself."
Rationale: Raising all four side rails is considered a physical restraint because it restricts the
client's freedom of movement. For a confused client, this can actually increase the risk of
injury, as they may attempt to climb over the rails and fall from a greater height.
Restraints require a provider’s order and should only be used after less restrictive
measures fail.
Question 7
A nurse is identifying which diseases require airborne precautions. Which of the following
should the nurse include?
A) Clostridium difficile
B) MRSA
C) Influenza
D) Varicella
E) Pneumonia
Correct Answer: D) Varicella
Rationale: Airborne precautions are required for pathogens that remain suspended in the
air for long periods (droplet nuclei smaller than 5 microns). Standard airborne diseases
include Varicella (chickenpox), Tuberculosis (TB), and Measles (Rubeola). C-diff and
MRSA require contact precautions, while Influenza and Pneumonia typically require
droplet precautions.
Question 8
A nurse in a provider's office is measuring a client and notes a loss in height from the previous
year. The nurse should identify this as a manifestation of which of the following?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Scoliosis
C) Kyphosis
D) Lordosis
E) Arthritis
Correct Answer: A) Osteoporosis
Rationale: A loss of height is a classic early sign of osteoporosis. It occurs due to the loss of
calcium and bone density in the vertebrae, which leads to compression fractures and the
eventual collapse of the spinal column. Scoliosis (B) is a lateral curve; Kyphosis (C) is a
"hunchback" curve; and Lordosis (D) is an exaggerated lumbar curve.
Question 9
The nurse is planning care for a patient with severe burns. Which of the following fluid
imbalances is this patient at the highest risk for developing?
, 4
A) Intracellular fluid deficit
B) Intracellular fluid overload
C) Extracellular fluid deficit
D) Interstitial fluid deficit
E) Total body water excess
Correct Answer: A) Intracellular fluid deficit
Rationale: Severe burns damage cell membranes and cause massive fluid shifts. Fluid moves
from the intracellular and intravascular compartments into the interstitial spaces (third-
spacing), resulting in a profound intracellular fluid deficit and hypovolemic shock.
Question 10
A nurse is preparing to obtain a stool specimen from a client who is taking iron supplements.
Which of the following colors should the nurse expect the stool to be?
A) Red
B) Black
C) Clay-colored
D) Green
E) Pale yellow
Correct Answer: B) Black
Rationale: Iron supplements commonly cause the stool to become black and tarry in
appearance (melena-like). This is a harmless side effect of the medication but must be
distinguished from GI bleeding. Clay-colored stool (C) indicates biliary obstruction, and
red stool (A) indicates lower GI bleeding or certain foods.
Question 11
A nurse is obtaining a health history from a newly admitted client who has chronic knee pain.
What should the nurse include in the pain assessment? (Select all that apply)
1. Pain history, including location, intensity, and quality
2. Client's purposeful body movement in arranging papers
3. Pain pattern, including precipitating and alleviating factors
4. Vital signs such as blood pressure and heart rate
5. The family's statement about the client's pain
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 1, 2, and 3
C) 1, 3, and 4
D) 1, 3, and 5
E) All of the above
Correct Answer: A) 1 and 3 only
