NSG 3100
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
NSG 3100 - Exam 3 | Galen College
Full Fundamentals of Nursing Exam
with Verified Answers & Rationales
(2026/2027)
Fundamentals of Nursing | Comprehensive Assessment
50 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Nursing Process & Critical Thinking Vital Signs & Physical Assessment
Communication & Documentation Medication Administration
Infection Control & Safety Basic Pharmacology Principles
COVER PAGE - 1
,SECTION 1 | Nursing Process & Critical Thinking | Q1-Q10 | NSG 3100 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 50
A 68-year-old male patient admitted with pneumonia reports difficulty breathing and a
persistent cough. During the initial assessment, the nurse notes a respiratory rate of
28 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. Which nursing
diagnosis should the nurse prioritize based on these findings?
A. Impaired gas exchange related to alveolar-capillary membrane changes
B. Activity intolerance related to generalized weakness
C. Risk for falls related to altered mobility
D. Acute pain related to inflammation of lung tissue
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Impaired gas exchange is the priority diagnosis because the patient exhibits the classic triad of tachypnea,
hypoxemia, and respiratory distress, indicating compromised oxygenation at the alveolar level. Activity
intolerance and pain are secondary concerns that may resolve once gas exchange improves, while fall risk
is unrelated to the current respiratory findings.
Q2 Question 2 of 50
During morning rounds, a nurse discovers a 54-year-old post-operative patient with a
new onset of confusion, restlessness, and an irregular pulse of 110 beats per minute.
The patient was alert and oriented the previous evening. Which action should the
nurse take first?
A. Assess the patient's oxygen saturation and auscultate lung sounds
B. Notify the physician immediately about the change in mental status
C. Administer the prescribed PRN sedative for agitation
D. Review the patient's medication administration record for new orders
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The nurse must first assess oxygenation status because hypoxia is the most common reversible cause of
acute confusion in post-operative patients, and lung complications such as atelectasis or pulmonary
embolism can develop rapidly. Notifying the physician is appropriate after initial assessment data is
collected, while sedating a confused patient could mask worsening hypoxia.
NSG 3100 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 0
,SECTION 1 | Nursing Process & Critical Thinking | Q1-Q10 | NSG 3100 2026/2027
Q3 Question 3 of 50
A 42-year-old female patient with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus states she
feels overwhelmed by the dietary changes and blood glucose monitoring
requirements. She has missed two scheduled glucose checks in the past 24 hours.
What is the most appropriate nursing intervention at this time?
A. Provide structured education using teach-back method to confirm understanding
B. Contact the patient's family to enforce compliance with the treatment plan
C. Document noncompliance and notify the healthcare provider of refusal
D. Simplify the monitoring schedule to once daily until the patient adjusts
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
The teach-back method is the most effective evidence-based strategy for confirming patient
comprehension and identifying specific knowledge gaps that contribute to nonadherence. Involving family
without patient consent violates autonomy, documenting noncompliance prematurely labels the patient
negatively, and reducing monitoring frequency compromises safety and glycemic control.
Q4 Question 4 of 50
The nurse is caring for a 76-year-old patient with heart failure who has been receiving
intravenous furosemide for 48 hours. The nurse notices the patient has produced
only 400 mL of urine in the past 24 hours despite adequate fluid intake. Which
assessment finding would most strongly indicate the need for immediate
intervention?
A. Bilateral crackles auscultated in the lower lung fields
B. Weight gain of 1.5 kg since the previous morning
C. Decreased level of consciousness and cool, clammy skin
D. Mild peripheral edema present in both lower extremities
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Decreased consciousness with cool, clammy skin signals impending cardiogenic shock due to severely
compromised cardiac output, representing a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention.
Crackles and weight gain indicate fluid overload but are expected in decompensated heart failure, while
mild edema is a chronic finding that does not require urgent action.
NSG 3100 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 0
, SECTION 1 | Nursing Process & Critical Thinking | Q1-Q10 | NSG 3100 2026/2027
Q5 Question 5 of 50
A 35-year-old trauma patient with multiple fractures is scheduled for surgery in 4
hours. The nurse reviews the preoperative checklist and discovers the patient ate a
light breakfast 2 hours ago, violating the NPO protocol. What is the nurse's priority
action?
A. Notify the surgeon and anesthesia provider immediately of the NPO violation
B. Administer an antiemetic prophylactically to reduce aspiration risk
C. Reassure the patient that a light meal will not affect anesthesia safety
D. Document the incident and continue with the standard preoperative preparations
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The surgeon and anesthesia provider must be notified immediately because aspiration of gastric contents
during induction is a serious, potentially fatal risk that may require postponement of elective surgery.
Administering an antiemetic does not address the aspiration risk, reassuring the patient is misleading and
unsafe, and continuing preparations without notification places the patient at significant harm.
Q6 Question 6 of 50
A school nurse is conducting a health screening and identifies a 16-year-old student
with a blood pressure of 152/96 mmHg on three separate occasions. The student is
asymptomatic, has no family history of hypertension, and reports drinking 3-4 energy
drinks daily. What is the nurse's most appropriate initial response?
A. Recommend immediate referral to a pediatric cardiologist for further evaluation
B. Advise the student to eliminate energy drinks and recheck blood pressure in 2
weeks
C. Document the findings and notify the student's parents of a hypertension diagnosis
D. Place the student on activity restriction until blood pressure normalizes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Energy drinks contain high levels of caffeine and other stimulants that are well-documented to cause
transient but significant blood pressure elevations in adolescents; eliminating this trigger and rechecking is
the appropriate first step before making a hypertension diagnosis. Immediate cardiology referral is
premature, notifying parents of a diagnosis without confirmation is inappropriate, and activity restriction is
unnecessary for asymptomatic elevated readings.
NSG 3100 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 0
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
NSG 3100 - Exam 3 | Galen College
Full Fundamentals of Nursing Exam
with Verified Answers & Rationales
(2026/2027)
Fundamentals of Nursing | Comprehensive Assessment
50 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Nursing Process & Critical Thinking Vital Signs & Physical Assessment
Communication & Documentation Medication Administration
Infection Control & Safety Basic Pharmacology Principles
COVER PAGE - 1
,SECTION 1 | Nursing Process & Critical Thinking | Q1-Q10 | NSG 3100 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 50
A 68-year-old male patient admitted with pneumonia reports difficulty breathing and a
persistent cough. During the initial assessment, the nurse notes a respiratory rate of
28 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. Which nursing
diagnosis should the nurse prioritize based on these findings?
A. Impaired gas exchange related to alveolar-capillary membrane changes
B. Activity intolerance related to generalized weakness
C. Risk for falls related to altered mobility
D. Acute pain related to inflammation of lung tissue
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Impaired gas exchange is the priority diagnosis because the patient exhibits the classic triad of tachypnea,
hypoxemia, and respiratory distress, indicating compromised oxygenation at the alveolar level. Activity
intolerance and pain are secondary concerns that may resolve once gas exchange improves, while fall risk
is unrelated to the current respiratory findings.
Q2 Question 2 of 50
During morning rounds, a nurse discovers a 54-year-old post-operative patient with a
new onset of confusion, restlessness, and an irregular pulse of 110 beats per minute.
The patient was alert and oriented the previous evening. Which action should the
nurse take first?
A. Assess the patient's oxygen saturation and auscultate lung sounds
B. Notify the physician immediately about the change in mental status
C. Administer the prescribed PRN sedative for agitation
D. Review the patient's medication administration record for new orders
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The nurse must first assess oxygenation status because hypoxia is the most common reversible cause of
acute confusion in post-operative patients, and lung complications such as atelectasis or pulmonary
embolism can develop rapidly. Notifying the physician is appropriate after initial assessment data is
collected, while sedating a confused patient could mask worsening hypoxia.
NSG 3100 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 0
,SECTION 1 | Nursing Process & Critical Thinking | Q1-Q10 | NSG 3100 2026/2027
Q3 Question 3 of 50
A 42-year-old female patient with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus states she
feels overwhelmed by the dietary changes and blood glucose monitoring
requirements. She has missed two scheduled glucose checks in the past 24 hours.
What is the most appropriate nursing intervention at this time?
A. Provide structured education using teach-back method to confirm understanding
B. Contact the patient's family to enforce compliance with the treatment plan
C. Document noncompliance and notify the healthcare provider of refusal
D. Simplify the monitoring schedule to once daily until the patient adjusts
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
The teach-back method is the most effective evidence-based strategy for confirming patient
comprehension and identifying specific knowledge gaps that contribute to nonadherence. Involving family
without patient consent violates autonomy, documenting noncompliance prematurely labels the patient
negatively, and reducing monitoring frequency compromises safety and glycemic control.
Q4 Question 4 of 50
The nurse is caring for a 76-year-old patient with heart failure who has been receiving
intravenous furosemide for 48 hours. The nurse notices the patient has produced
only 400 mL of urine in the past 24 hours despite adequate fluid intake. Which
assessment finding would most strongly indicate the need for immediate
intervention?
A. Bilateral crackles auscultated in the lower lung fields
B. Weight gain of 1.5 kg since the previous morning
C. Decreased level of consciousness and cool, clammy skin
D. Mild peripheral edema present in both lower extremities
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Decreased consciousness with cool, clammy skin signals impending cardiogenic shock due to severely
compromised cardiac output, representing a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention.
Crackles and weight gain indicate fluid overload but are expected in decompensated heart failure, while
mild edema is a chronic finding that does not require urgent action.
NSG 3100 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 0
, SECTION 1 | Nursing Process & Critical Thinking | Q1-Q10 | NSG 3100 2026/2027
Q5 Question 5 of 50
A 35-year-old trauma patient with multiple fractures is scheduled for surgery in 4
hours. The nurse reviews the preoperative checklist and discovers the patient ate a
light breakfast 2 hours ago, violating the NPO protocol. What is the nurse's priority
action?
A. Notify the surgeon and anesthesia provider immediately of the NPO violation
B. Administer an antiemetic prophylactically to reduce aspiration risk
C. Reassure the patient that a light meal will not affect anesthesia safety
D. Document the incident and continue with the standard preoperative preparations
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The surgeon and anesthesia provider must be notified immediately because aspiration of gastric contents
during induction is a serious, potentially fatal risk that may require postponement of elective surgery.
Administering an antiemetic does not address the aspiration risk, reassuring the patient is misleading and
unsafe, and continuing preparations without notification places the patient at significant harm.
Q6 Question 6 of 50
A school nurse is conducting a health screening and identifies a 16-year-old student
with a blood pressure of 152/96 mmHg on three separate occasions. The student is
asymptomatic, has no family history of hypertension, and reports drinking 3-4 energy
drinks daily. What is the nurse's most appropriate initial response?
A. Recommend immediate referral to a pediatric cardiologist for further evaluation
B. Advise the student to eliminate energy drinks and recheck blood pressure in 2
weeks
C. Document the findings and notify the student's parents of a hypertension diagnosis
D. Place the student on activity restriction until blood pressure normalizes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Energy drinks contain high levels of caffeine and other stimulants that are well-documented to cause
transient but significant blood pressure elevations in adolescents; eliminating this trigger and rechecking is
the appropriate first step before making a hypertension diagnosis. Immediate cardiology referral is
premature, notifying parents of a diagnosis without confirmation is inappropriate, and activity restriction is
unnecessary for asymptomatic elevated readings.
NSG 3100 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 0
