DAVITA PCT FINAL EXAM ACTUAL EXAM 2026 | 2 DIFFERENT VERSIONS | ALL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (ALREADY GRADED A+) | LATEST VERSIONS
Question 1
How long can viable MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) bacteria remain on
environmental surfaces?
A) Only a few minutes after the surface dries.
B) Up to 24 hours regardless of the surface material.
C) For days, with plastic and vinyl being the most favorable surfaces for survival.
D) They cannot survive outside of a human host.
E) Only in wet or damp environments.
Correct Answer: C) Can remain on surfaces for days with plastic and vinyl being most
favorable to their survival.
Rationale: MRSA is highly resilient. In a dialysis setting, surfaces like chair vinyl and plastic
machine housings can harbor the bacteria for several days, making meticulous surface
disinfection between patients critical to prevent transmission.
Question 2
What is the correct protocol for teammates to minimize infection risk during Central Venous
Catheter (CVC) care?
A) Wearing clean gloves and a gown only.
B) Performing hand hygiene and wearing a facemask and clean gloves.
C) Using sterile gloves and a face shield without a mask.
D) Washing the catheter with soap and water before treatment.
E) Only the patient needs to wear a mask during the procedure.
Correct Answer: B) Teammates decrease the risk of infection by wearing a facemask,
washing hands, and wearing clean gloves.
Rationale: CVCs are the highest risk for bacteremia. The use of a facemask by both the
teammate and the patient prevents respiratory droplets from contaminating the exit site or
hub, while hand hygiene and clean gloves prevent contact transmission.
Question 3
What are the primary clinical consequences of "sodium loading" during a dialysis treatment?
A) Improved blood pressure stability and decreased cramping.
B) Increased thirst, larger interdialytic weight gains, and post-dialysis hypertension.
C) Decreased appetite and significant weight loss between treatments.
D) Improved clearance of urea and creatinine.
E) Reduction in the risk of dialysis disequilibrium syndrome.
Correct Answer: B) Leads to an increase in thirst and larger fluid weight gains between
treatments and can contribute to post dialysis hypertension and headaches.
Rationale: When excess sodium is left in the patient (either through high dialysate sodium
or saline boluses), it pulls fluid from the cells into the vascular space, triggering intense
, 2
thirst. This leads to higher fluid intake and dangerous fluid overload, which stresses the
cardiovascular system.
Question 4
Why is practicing meticulous infection control particularly vital for patients with chronic kidney
disease?
A) Because dialysis machines are prone to bacterial growth.
B) Because kidney failure weakens the immune system, making patients highly vulnerable.
C) Because the state of the art in dialysis requires non-sterile environments.
D) Because most dialysis patients have active infections upon admission.
E) Because infection control is the only way to improve Kt/V.
Correct Answer: B) Practicing meticulous infection control is important because kidney
failure weakens a person's immune system, making these patients much more vulnerable to
infections.
Rationale: Uremia (the buildup of toxins in the blood) impairs the function of white blood
cells. This immunocompromised state means that a minor contamination that a healthy
person might fight off can lead to sepsis and death in a dialysis patient.
Question 5
In a legal or clinical audit, what is the primary danger of poor or incomplete documentation?
A) It results in a lower paycheck for the teammate.
B) It has no impact if the patient received good care.
C) It can open an attack on your care and suggest that the care was not provided.
D) It only matters if the patient is transferred to a hospital.
E) It is only an issue if the nurse does not co-sign the notes.
Correct Answer: C) Can open an attack on your care.
Rationale: In the medical-legal field, the phrase "If it wasn't documented, it wasn't done" is
the standard. Incomplete records allow attorneys to argue that the Standard of Care was
not met, even if the technician actually performed the task.
Question 6
When a teammate administers a saline bolus during treatment, what two specific items must be
documented?
A) The time of administration and the machine serial number.
B) The volume of saline and the name of the teammate who witnessed it.
C) The reason for administering the saline and the patient's response.
D) The patient’s temperature and the BFR.
E) The type of access used and the needle gauge.
Correct Answer: C) The reason for administering the saline and the patient response.
Rationale: Saline is considered a medication. Documentation must reflect the clinical
, 3
necessity (e.g., hypotension or cramping) and whether the intervention successfully
resolved the patient's symptoms.
Question 7
If a patient experiences a severe anaphylactic reaction during dialysis, what is the most critical
intervention?
A) Increase the BFR to dilute the allergen.
B) Stop the blood pump, discontinue the treatment, and do not return the blood.
C) Return the blood immediately to ensure the patient doesn't lose iron.
D) Administer a saline bolus and continue the treatment at a slower rate.
E) Wait 5 minutes to see if the symptoms resolve before calling the nurse.
Correct Answer: B) Stop the blood pump, discontinue the treatment, do not return the
blood.
Rationale: Returning the blood in an anaphylactic reaction would re-introduce the allergen
(which is often the dialyzer or a sterilant) into the patient's system, potentially causing fatal
shock. The circuit must be discarded.
Question 8
What is the standard procedure for evaluating a patient's stability for discharge following
dialysis?
A) Asking the patient if they feel "okay."
B) Checking if the machine finished the programmed time.
C) Evaluating the effectiveness of the treatment by comparing post-dialysis data to pre-dialysis
findings.
D) Ensuring the patient has a ride home.
E) Checking the patient's weight only.
Correct Answer: C) Evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment by comparing data to pre-
dialysis findings.
Rationale: Technicians must review the final vitals, fluid removed, and the status of the
vascular access compared to the baseline. If a patient is significantly more hypotensive than
when they started, they may not be safe to leave.
Question 9
Why is it important to inquire about possible problems or changes in health during pre-dialysis
data collection?
A) To find a reason to cancel the treatment.
B) To assist in identifying the causes of renal failure and potential complications.
C) To fill up the required space in the electronic medical record.
D) To ensure the patient is following their diet.
E) To determine if the patient should be transferred to a different clinic.
Correct Answer: B) Is important to inquire about possible problems during data collection
, 4
and assessment.
Rationale: Changes in health (such as a new fever, shortness of breath, or diarrhea) can
indicate complications that may make the scheduled dialysis treatment dangerous. Early
detection allows the RN to modify the plan of care.
Question 10
Which group of patients is at the highest risk for developing Dialysis Disequilibrium Syndrome
(DDS)?
A) Patients with high Kt/V readings.
B) Patients who are skipping treatments or are brand new to dialysis.
C) Patients who use a fistula instead of a catheter.
D) Patients who follow a low-protein diet.
E) Patients who take their blood pressure medication before treatment.
Correct Answer: B) Patients who are skipping treatments.
Rationale: DDS occurs when urea is removed too quickly from the blood, causing a shift of
fluid into the brain cells (osmotic shift). Patients with very high urea levels—those new to
dialysis or those who skip treatments—are most at risk for this brain swelling.
Question 11
If hemolysis (the bursting of red blood cells) is suspected during treatment, what action must the
PCT take regarding the patient's blood?
A) Return it slowly to prevent anemia.
B) Return it only if the nurse gives a saline bolus.
C) The treatment should be stopped without returning the patient's blood.
D) Increase the blood pump speed to clear the hemolyzed cells.
E) Recirculate the blood in the machine for 15 minutes.
Correct Answer: C) The hemodialysis treatment should be stopped without returning the
patient's blood.
Rationale: Hemolyzed blood is "dead" blood that is rich in potassium. Returning this blood
to the patient can cause a sudden, lethal spike in potassium (hyperkalemia), leading to
cardiac arrest.
Question 12
Why must a technician wait the full 15 seconds after lowering the blood pump speed before
drawing a post-treatment blood sample for Kt/V?
A) To allow the machine to calculate the final UF.
B) To ensure the patient’s heart rate has stabilized.
C) Because waiting only 5 seconds would cause the Kt/V reading to be falsely high.
D) To allow the heparin to wear off.
E) To ensure the needles do not clot.
Correct Answer: C) Waiting only 5 seconds... would cause the Kt/V reading to be falsely
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (ALREADY GRADED A+) | LATEST VERSIONS
Question 1
How long can viable MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) bacteria remain on
environmental surfaces?
A) Only a few minutes after the surface dries.
B) Up to 24 hours regardless of the surface material.
C) For days, with plastic and vinyl being the most favorable surfaces for survival.
D) They cannot survive outside of a human host.
E) Only in wet or damp environments.
Correct Answer: C) Can remain on surfaces for days with plastic and vinyl being most
favorable to their survival.
Rationale: MRSA is highly resilient. In a dialysis setting, surfaces like chair vinyl and plastic
machine housings can harbor the bacteria for several days, making meticulous surface
disinfection between patients critical to prevent transmission.
Question 2
What is the correct protocol for teammates to minimize infection risk during Central Venous
Catheter (CVC) care?
A) Wearing clean gloves and a gown only.
B) Performing hand hygiene and wearing a facemask and clean gloves.
C) Using sterile gloves and a face shield without a mask.
D) Washing the catheter with soap and water before treatment.
E) Only the patient needs to wear a mask during the procedure.
Correct Answer: B) Teammates decrease the risk of infection by wearing a facemask,
washing hands, and wearing clean gloves.
Rationale: CVCs are the highest risk for bacteremia. The use of a facemask by both the
teammate and the patient prevents respiratory droplets from contaminating the exit site or
hub, while hand hygiene and clean gloves prevent contact transmission.
Question 3
What are the primary clinical consequences of "sodium loading" during a dialysis treatment?
A) Improved blood pressure stability and decreased cramping.
B) Increased thirst, larger interdialytic weight gains, and post-dialysis hypertension.
C) Decreased appetite and significant weight loss between treatments.
D) Improved clearance of urea and creatinine.
E) Reduction in the risk of dialysis disequilibrium syndrome.
Correct Answer: B) Leads to an increase in thirst and larger fluid weight gains between
treatments and can contribute to post dialysis hypertension and headaches.
Rationale: When excess sodium is left in the patient (either through high dialysate sodium
or saline boluses), it pulls fluid from the cells into the vascular space, triggering intense
, 2
thirst. This leads to higher fluid intake and dangerous fluid overload, which stresses the
cardiovascular system.
Question 4
Why is practicing meticulous infection control particularly vital for patients with chronic kidney
disease?
A) Because dialysis machines are prone to bacterial growth.
B) Because kidney failure weakens the immune system, making patients highly vulnerable.
C) Because the state of the art in dialysis requires non-sterile environments.
D) Because most dialysis patients have active infections upon admission.
E) Because infection control is the only way to improve Kt/V.
Correct Answer: B) Practicing meticulous infection control is important because kidney
failure weakens a person's immune system, making these patients much more vulnerable to
infections.
Rationale: Uremia (the buildup of toxins in the blood) impairs the function of white blood
cells. This immunocompromised state means that a minor contamination that a healthy
person might fight off can lead to sepsis and death in a dialysis patient.
Question 5
In a legal or clinical audit, what is the primary danger of poor or incomplete documentation?
A) It results in a lower paycheck for the teammate.
B) It has no impact if the patient received good care.
C) It can open an attack on your care and suggest that the care was not provided.
D) It only matters if the patient is transferred to a hospital.
E) It is only an issue if the nurse does not co-sign the notes.
Correct Answer: C) Can open an attack on your care.
Rationale: In the medical-legal field, the phrase "If it wasn't documented, it wasn't done" is
the standard. Incomplete records allow attorneys to argue that the Standard of Care was
not met, even if the technician actually performed the task.
Question 6
When a teammate administers a saline bolus during treatment, what two specific items must be
documented?
A) The time of administration and the machine serial number.
B) The volume of saline and the name of the teammate who witnessed it.
C) The reason for administering the saline and the patient's response.
D) The patient’s temperature and the BFR.
E) The type of access used and the needle gauge.
Correct Answer: C) The reason for administering the saline and the patient response.
Rationale: Saline is considered a medication. Documentation must reflect the clinical
, 3
necessity (e.g., hypotension or cramping) and whether the intervention successfully
resolved the patient's symptoms.
Question 7
If a patient experiences a severe anaphylactic reaction during dialysis, what is the most critical
intervention?
A) Increase the BFR to dilute the allergen.
B) Stop the blood pump, discontinue the treatment, and do not return the blood.
C) Return the blood immediately to ensure the patient doesn't lose iron.
D) Administer a saline bolus and continue the treatment at a slower rate.
E) Wait 5 minutes to see if the symptoms resolve before calling the nurse.
Correct Answer: B) Stop the blood pump, discontinue the treatment, do not return the
blood.
Rationale: Returning the blood in an anaphylactic reaction would re-introduce the allergen
(which is often the dialyzer or a sterilant) into the patient's system, potentially causing fatal
shock. The circuit must be discarded.
Question 8
What is the standard procedure for evaluating a patient's stability for discharge following
dialysis?
A) Asking the patient if they feel "okay."
B) Checking if the machine finished the programmed time.
C) Evaluating the effectiveness of the treatment by comparing post-dialysis data to pre-dialysis
findings.
D) Ensuring the patient has a ride home.
E) Checking the patient's weight only.
Correct Answer: C) Evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment by comparing data to pre-
dialysis findings.
Rationale: Technicians must review the final vitals, fluid removed, and the status of the
vascular access compared to the baseline. If a patient is significantly more hypotensive than
when they started, they may not be safe to leave.
Question 9
Why is it important to inquire about possible problems or changes in health during pre-dialysis
data collection?
A) To find a reason to cancel the treatment.
B) To assist in identifying the causes of renal failure and potential complications.
C) To fill up the required space in the electronic medical record.
D) To ensure the patient is following their diet.
E) To determine if the patient should be transferred to a different clinic.
Correct Answer: B) Is important to inquire about possible problems during data collection
, 4
and assessment.
Rationale: Changes in health (such as a new fever, shortness of breath, or diarrhea) can
indicate complications that may make the scheduled dialysis treatment dangerous. Early
detection allows the RN to modify the plan of care.
Question 10
Which group of patients is at the highest risk for developing Dialysis Disequilibrium Syndrome
(DDS)?
A) Patients with high Kt/V readings.
B) Patients who are skipping treatments or are brand new to dialysis.
C) Patients who use a fistula instead of a catheter.
D) Patients who follow a low-protein diet.
E) Patients who take their blood pressure medication before treatment.
Correct Answer: B) Patients who are skipping treatments.
Rationale: DDS occurs when urea is removed too quickly from the blood, causing a shift of
fluid into the brain cells (osmotic shift). Patients with very high urea levels—those new to
dialysis or those who skip treatments—are most at risk for this brain swelling.
Question 11
If hemolysis (the bursting of red blood cells) is suspected during treatment, what action must the
PCT take regarding the patient's blood?
A) Return it slowly to prevent anemia.
B) Return it only if the nurse gives a saline bolus.
C) The treatment should be stopped without returning the patient's blood.
D) Increase the blood pump speed to clear the hemolyzed cells.
E) Recirculate the blood in the machine for 15 minutes.
Correct Answer: C) The hemodialysis treatment should be stopped without returning the
patient's blood.
Rationale: Hemolyzed blood is "dead" blood that is rich in potassium. Returning this blood
to the patient can cause a sudden, lethal spike in potassium (hyperkalemia), leading to
cardiac arrest.
Question 12
Why must a technician wait the full 15 seconds after lowering the blood pump speed before
drawing a post-treatment blood sample for Kt/V?
A) To allow the machine to calculate the final UF.
B) To ensure the patient’s heart rate has stabilized.
C) Because waiting only 5 seconds would cause the Kt/V reading to be falsely high.
D) To allow the heparin to wear off.
E) To ensure the needles do not clot.
Correct Answer: C) Waiting only 5 seconds... would cause the Kt/V reading to be falsely
