ATI MATERNAL NEWBORN 2026 EXAM 400 ACTUAL
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALE
ALREADY GRADED A+
This comprehensive document contains 400 multiple-choice questions and
detailed rationales covering the ATI Maternal Newborn 2024 Proctored Exam
content. Questions span all major topics including antepartum care (prenatal
visits, fetal development, maternal nutrition, common discomforts, danger
signs), intrapartum care (stages of labor, fetal monitoring, pain management,
complications), postpartum care (uterine assessment, lochia, breastfeeding,
postpartum depression, hemorrhage), newborn care (Apgar scoring,
thermoregulation, feeding, hyperbilirubinemia, hypoglycemia, neonatal
abstinence syndrome), and high-risk conditions (preeclampsia, gestational
diabetes, placental abnormalities, preterm labor, infections). Each question
provides four answer choices with the correct answer identified and a
comprehensive rationale explaining the underlying pathophysiology, nursing
interventions, and evidence-based practice guidelines. This resource
thoroughly prepares nursing students for the ATI Maternal Newborn
Proctored Assessment.
1. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation about manifestations
to report to the provider during pregnancy. Which of the following information
should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) Nausea upon awakening
B) Blurred or double vision
C) Increase in white vaginal discharge
D) Leg cramps when sleeping
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Blurred or double vision can indicate preeclampsia, a serious
complication of pregnancy. The nurse should instruct the client to report this
immediately. Nausea upon awakening (A) is a common discomfort in first
trimester. Increased white vaginal discharge (C) is normal (leukorrhea). Leg
cramps (D) are common in later pregnancy .
,2. A nurse is teaching a client about Rho(D) immune globulin. Which statement
by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A) "I will receive this med if my baby is Rh-negative."
B) "I will receive this med when I'm in labor."
C) "I will need a second dose of this med when my baby is 6 weeks old."
D) "I will need this med if I have an amniocentesis."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rho(D) immune globulin is given to Rh-negative clients to prevent
sensitization. Any event that could cause fetal-maternal bleeding, such as
amniocentesis, requires administration of RhoGAM. It is given at 28 weeks and
within 72 hours after birth if the newborn is Rh-positive .
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and is receiving
IV fluid replacement. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
A) BUN 25 mg/dL
B) Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
C) Urine output of 280 mL within 8 hours
D) Urine negative for ketones
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: BUN 25 mg/dL is elevated and may indicate dehydration or prerenal
azotemia related to hyperemesis. Creatinine 0.8 (B) is normal, urine output
280mL/8hr (C) is adequate, and negative ketones (D) indicates improvement .
4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is postpartum and has
preeclampsia. Which lab result should the nurse report to the provider?
A) Hct 39%
B) Serum albumin 4.5 g/dL
C) WBC 9,000/mm³
D) Platelets 50,000/mm³
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Platelets 50,000/mm³ indicate severe thrombocytopenia associated
with HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets), a
severe complication of preeclampsia. This finding requires immediate provider
notification .
5. A nurse is caring for a client following an amniocentesis at 18 weeks gestation.
Which finding should the nurse report to the provider as a potential complication?
A) Increased fetal movement
B) Leakage of fluid from the vagina
, C) Upper abdominal discomfort
D) Urinary frequency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Leakage of fluid from the vagina following amniocentesis may
indicate rupture of membranes or leakage of amniotic fluid, a serious complication
requiring immediate evaluation. Increased fetal movement is normal, upper
abdominal discomfort is not typical, and urinary frequency is common in
pregnancy .
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and is undergoing
a nonstress test (NST) that reveals a variable deceleration in the FHR. What action
should the nurse take?
A) Give the client orange juice
B) Elevate the client's legs
C) Have the client change positions
D) Establish IV access
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Variable decelerations are often caused by umbilical cord
compression. Changing the client's position can relieve cord compression and
improve fetal oxygenation. This is the immediate priority nursing action .
7. A nurse is assessing a client who gave birth vaginally 12 hours ago and palpates
her uterus to the right above the umbilicus. What intervention should the nurse
perform?
A) Reassess the client in 2 hours
B) Administer simethicone
C) Assist the client to empty her bladder
D) Instruct the client to lie on her right side
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A displaced uterus (to the right or left) and above the umbilicus
indicates a full bladder. A full bladder can displace the uterus and lead to uterine
atony and increased bleeding. The nurse should assist the client to void .
8. A nurse is performing a routine assessment on a client who is 18 weeks
gestation. What findings should the nurse expect?
A) Deep tendon reflexes 4+
B) Fundal height 14 cm
C) Urine protein 2+
D) Fetal heart rate (FHR) 152/min
Correct Answer: D
, Rationale: FHR of 152/min is within the normal range of 110-160 bpm. Fundal
height at 18 weeks should be approximately 18 cm (B), so 14 cm is low. 2+ protein
is abnormal, and 4+ reflexes indicate hyperreflexia, both concerning for
preeclampsia .
9. A nurse is caring for a full-term newborn immediately following birth. What
actions should the nurse take first?
A) Assign Apgar scores to the newborn
B) Weigh the newborn
C) Place identification bracelets on the newborn
D) Dry the newborn
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The first priority in newborn care immediately following birth is to
dry the newborn to prevent heat loss (hypothermia). This is a key step in thermal
regulation and should be done before Apgar scoring, weighing, or identification .
10. A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and has no cervical change
in the last 4 hours. Which statement should the nurse make?
A) "Let me help you into a comfortable pushing position so you can begin
bearing down."
B) "I'm going to call the doctor to get a prescription for meds to ripen your
cervix."
C) "I will give you some IV pain med to strengthen your contractions."
D) "Your provider will insert an intrauterine pressure catheter to monitor the
strength of your contractions."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lack of cervical change in active labor (arrest of labor) may require
an intrauterine pressure catheter (IUPC) to accurately assess contraction strength
and guide interventions. The client may also need oxytocin augmentation.
Medications to ripen the cervix are used for induction, not for active labor .
11. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postpartum and was
taking insulin for gestational diabetes mellitus. What instructions should the nurse
include?
A) Get a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test in 6-12 weeks
B) Avoid using low-dose oral contraceptives for birth control
C) Need to monitor glucose levels daily at home for 2-3 weeks
D) Continue taking insulin until the postpartum appointment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALE
ALREADY GRADED A+
This comprehensive document contains 400 multiple-choice questions and
detailed rationales covering the ATI Maternal Newborn 2024 Proctored Exam
content. Questions span all major topics including antepartum care (prenatal
visits, fetal development, maternal nutrition, common discomforts, danger
signs), intrapartum care (stages of labor, fetal monitoring, pain management,
complications), postpartum care (uterine assessment, lochia, breastfeeding,
postpartum depression, hemorrhage), newborn care (Apgar scoring,
thermoregulation, feeding, hyperbilirubinemia, hypoglycemia, neonatal
abstinence syndrome), and high-risk conditions (preeclampsia, gestational
diabetes, placental abnormalities, preterm labor, infections). Each question
provides four answer choices with the correct answer identified and a
comprehensive rationale explaining the underlying pathophysiology, nursing
interventions, and evidence-based practice guidelines. This resource
thoroughly prepares nursing students for the ATI Maternal Newborn
Proctored Assessment.
1. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation about manifestations
to report to the provider during pregnancy. Which of the following information
should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) Nausea upon awakening
B) Blurred or double vision
C) Increase in white vaginal discharge
D) Leg cramps when sleeping
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Blurred or double vision can indicate preeclampsia, a serious
complication of pregnancy. The nurse should instruct the client to report this
immediately. Nausea upon awakening (A) is a common discomfort in first
trimester. Increased white vaginal discharge (C) is normal (leukorrhea). Leg
cramps (D) are common in later pregnancy .
,2. A nurse is teaching a client about Rho(D) immune globulin. Which statement
by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A) "I will receive this med if my baby is Rh-negative."
B) "I will receive this med when I'm in labor."
C) "I will need a second dose of this med when my baby is 6 weeks old."
D) "I will need this med if I have an amniocentesis."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rho(D) immune globulin is given to Rh-negative clients to prevent
sensitization. Any event that could cause fetal-maternal bleeding, such as
amniocentesis, requires administration of RhoGAM. It is given at 28 weeks and
within 72 hours after birth if the newborn is Rh-positive .
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and is receiving
IV fluid replacement. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
A) BUN 25 mg/dL
B) Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
C) Urine output of 280 mL within 8 hours
D) Urine negative for ketones
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: BUN 25 mg/dL is elevated and may indicate dehydration or prerenal
azotemia related to hyperemesis. Creatinine 0.8 (B) is normal, urine output
280mL/8hr (C) is adequate, and negative ketones (D) indicates improvement .
4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is postpartum and has
preeclampsia. Which lab result should the nurse report to the provider?
A) Hct 39%
B) Serum albumin 4.5 g/dL
C) WBC 9,000/mm³
D) Platelets 50,000/mm³
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Platelets 50,000/mm³ indicate severe thrombocytopenia associated
with HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets), a
severe complication of preeclampsia. This finding requires immediate provider
notification .
5. A nurse is caring for a client following an amniocentesis at 18 weeks gestation.
Which finding should the nurse report to the provider as a potential complication?
A) Increased fetal movement
B) Leakage of fluid from the vagina
, C) Upper abdominal discomfort
D) Urinary frequency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Leakage of fluid from the vagina following amniocentesis may
indicate rupture of membranes or leakage of amniotic fluid, a serious complication
requiring immediate evaluation. Increased fetal movement is normal, upper
abdominal discomfort is not typical, and urinary frequency is common in
pregnancy .
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and is undergoing
a nonstress test (NST) that reveals a variable deceleration in the FHR. What action
should the nurse take?
A) Give the client orange juice
B) Elevate the client's legs
C) Have the client change positions
D) Establish IV access
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Variable decelerations are often caused by umbilical cord
compression. Changing the client's position can relieve cord compression and
improve fetal oxygenation. This is the immediate priority nursing action .
7. A nurse is assessing a client who gave birth vaginally 12 hours ago and palpates
her uterus to the right above the umbilicus. What intervention should the nurse
perform?
A) Reassess the client in 2 hours
B) Administer simethicone
C) Assist the client to empty her bladder
D) Instruct the client to lie on her right side
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A displaced uterus (to the right or left) and above the umbilicus
indicates a full bladder. A full bladder can displace the uterus and lead to uterine
atony and increased bleeding. The nurse should assist the client to void .
8. A nurse is performing a routine assessment on a client who is 18 weeks
gestation. What findings should the nurse expect?
A) Deep tendon reflexes 4+
B) Fundal height 14 cm
C) Urine protein 2+
D) Fetal heart rate (FHR) 152/min
Correct Answer: D
, Rationale: FHR of 152/min is within the normal range of 110-160 bpm. Fundal
height at 18 weeks should be approximately 18 cm (B), so 14 cm is low. 2+ protein
is abnormal, and 4+ reflexes indicate hyperreflexia, both concerning for
preeclampsia .
9. A nurse is caring for a full-term newborn immediately following birth. What
actions should the nurse take first?
A) Assign Apgar scores to the newborn
B) Weigh the newborn
C) Place identification bracelets on the newborn
D) Dry the newborn
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The first priority in newborn care immediately following birth is to
dry the newborn to prevent heat loss (hypothermia). This is a key step in thermal
regulation and should be done before Apgar scoring, weighing, or identification .
10. A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and has no cervical change
in the last 4 hours. Which statement should the nurse make?
A) "Let me help you into a comfortable pushing position so you can begin
bearing down."
B) "I'm going to call the doctor to get a prescription for meds to ripen your
cervix."
C) "I will give you some IV pain med to strengthen your contractions."
D) "Your provider will insert an intrauterine pressure catheter to monitor the
strength of your contractions."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lack of cervical change in active labor (arrest of labor) may require
an intrauterine pressure catheter (IUPC) to accurately assess contraction strength
and guide interventions. The client may also need oxytocin augmentation.
Medications to ripen the cervix are used for induction, not for active labor .
11. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postpartum and was
taking insulin for gestational diabetes mellitus. What instructions should the nurse
include?
A) Get a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test in 6-12 weeks
B) Avoid using low-dose oral contraceptives for birth control
C) Need to monitor glucose levels daily at home for 2-3 weeks
D) Continue taking insulin until the postpartum appointment
Correct Answer: A
