ATI PN Pharmacology
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
ATI PN Pharmacology -
Proctor Exam | NGN-Style
Questions & Case Studies |
2026/2027 Pharmacology ATI
(PDF) 2026/2027
PN Pharmacology Proctor Exam
75 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Dosage Calculations & Safe Medication Administration
Cardiovascular Agents: ACE Inhibitors, Beta Blockers, Diuretics
Neurological Pharmacology: Anticonvulsants, Anxiolytics, Opioids
Endocrine Medications: Insulin, Oral Hypoglycemics, Thyroid Age
Antimicrobial Therapy: Antibiotics, Antivirals, Antifungals
Oncology & Biologic Response Modifiers: Chemotherapy, Immun
COVER PAGE - 1
TI PN Pharmacology - Proctor Exam | NGN-Style Questions & Case Studies | 2026/2027 Pharmacology ATI (PDF) 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 of 4
, SECTION 1 | Pharmacology Basics & Medication Administration | Q1-Q15 | ATI PN Pharmacology - Proctor Exam | NG
Q1 Question 1 of 75
A 68-year-old client is prescribed digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The nurse reviews the
client's morning laboratory values and notes the serum potassium level is 3.1 mEq/L.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer the digoxin as scheduled and recheck potassium in 24 hours.
B. Hold the digoxin dose and notify the healthcare provider immediately.
C. Give the digoxin with a potassium supplement and monitor the cardiac rhythm.
D. Administer half the prescribed digoxin dose and document the rationale.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L is below normal (3.5-5.0
mEq/L), so the nurse must hold the digoxin and notify the provider. Administering digoxin with low
potassium could precipitate life-threatening dysrhythmias.
Q2 Question 2 of 75
A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV push to a client with acute
pulmonary edema. The client also has a serum magnesium level of 1.4 mg/dL. Which
nursing intervention is the highest priority before giving the medication?
A. Assess the client's blood pressure and heart rate before administration.
B. Verify the medication using two patient identifiers and the MAR.
C. Check the client's serum potassium and notify the provider of the low magnesium.
D. Ensure the client has voided within the past hour before giving the diuretic.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes renal wasting of magnesium and potassium. A magnesium level
of 1.4 mg/dL is low (normal 1.7-2.2 mg/dL), and furosemide will worsen this deficiency, potentially causing
cardiac dysrhythmias. The nurse must address electrolyte imbalances before administration.
Q3 Question 3 of 75
TI PN Pharmacology - Proctor Exam | NGN-Style Questions & Case Studies | 2026/2027 Pharmacology ATI (PDF) 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 4
, A 54-year-old client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin 1000 mg PO twice
daily. The nurse is reviewing the client's current medications and notes the client is
also taking hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg daily. Which potential interaction should the
nurse monitor for most closely?
A. Increased risk of hypoglycemia due to additive glucose-lowering effects.
B. Decreased effectiveness of metformin due to thiazide-induced hyperglycemia.
C. Increased risk of lactic acidosis due to reduced renal perfusion from the diuretic.
D. Decreased absorption of metformin when taken with hydrochlorothiazide.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause hyperglycemia by impairing insulin secretion and
increasing insulin resistance. This may counteract the glucose-lowering effect of metformin, requiring
closer blood glucose monitoring and possible medication adjustment.
Q4 Question 4 of 75
A nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin 5 mg PO daily for atrial fibrillation. The
client's INR is 4.8. The client reports a nosebleed that has lasted 20 minutes. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A. Apply firm pressure to the nose and tilt the head back to stop the bleeding.
B. Hold the next warfarin dose and notify the healthcare provider immediately.
C. Administer vitamin K 10 mg subcutaneously as the antidote for warfarin.
D. Recheck the INR in 2 hours to confirm the elevated result before acting.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
An INR of 4.8 is supratherapeutic (therapeutic range 2.0-3.0 for atrial fibrillation) and the client has active
bleeding. The nurse must hold the next warfarin dose and notify the provider immediately. Vitamin K is
only given per provider order; the nurse should not administer it independently.
Q5 Question 5 of 75
TI PN Pharmacology - Proctor Exam | NGN-Style Questions & Case Studies | 2026/2027 Pharmacology ATI (PDF) 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 4
, A 42-year-old client is prescribed amoxicillin-clavulanate 875/125 mg PO twice daily
for 10 days for community-acquired pneumonia. The nurse is providing discharge
teaching. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?
A. I will take this medication with food to reduce stomach upset.
B. I can stop taking the antibiotic once I feel better to avoid side effects.
C. I should report any severe diarrhea or rash to my doctor right away.
D. I will drink plenty of water while taking this medication.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Antibiotics must be taken for the full prescribed course to ensure complete eradication of the infection and
prevent antibiotic resistance. Stopping early when symptoms improve is a common misconception that
leads to treatment failure and resistant organisms.
Q6 Question 6 of 75
A nurse is preparing to administer insulin glargine 20 units subcutaneously at
bedtime to a client with type 1 diabetes. The client also receives insulin lispro with
meals. Which statement by the nurse is most accurate regarding the timing of these
insulins?
A. Give the glargine and lispro together in the same syringe to reduce injections.
B. Administer glargine at the same time each day, regardless of meal timing.
C. Hold the glargine if the client skips dinner to prevent nocturnal hypoglycemia.
D. Give the glargine 30 minutes before the lispro to allow peak absorption.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Insulin glargine is a long-acting basal insulin with a flat, peakless profile that provides 24-hour coverage. It
should be administered at the same time daily for consistent glucose control and is never mixed with other
insulins. It is independent of meal timing.
Q7 Question 7 of 75
TI PN Pharmacology - Proctor Exam | NGN-Style Questions & Case Studies | 2026/2027 Pharmacology ATI (PDF) 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 4
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
ATI PN Pharmacology -
Proctor Exam | NGN-Style
Questions & Case Studies |
2026/2027 Pharmacology ATI
(PDF) 2026/2027
PN Pharmacology Proctor Exam
75 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Dosage Calculations & Safe Medication Administration
Cardiovascular Agents: ACE Inhibitors, Beta Blockers, Diuretics
Neurological Pharmacology: Anticonvulsants, Anxiolytics, Opioids
Endocrine Medications: Insulin, Oral Hypoglycemics, Thyroid Age
Antimicrobial Therapy: Antibiotics, Antivirals, Antifungals
Oncology & Biologic Response Modifiers: Chemotherapy, Immun
COVER PAGE - 1
TI PN Pharmacology - Proctor Exam | NGN-Style Questions & Case Studies | 2026/2027 Pharmacology ATI (PDF) 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 of 4
, SECTION 1 | Pharmacology Basics & Medication Administration | Q1-Q15 | ATI PN Pharmacology - Proctor Exam | NG
Q1 Question 1 of 75
A 68-year-old client is prescribed digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The nurse reviews the
client's morning laboratory values and notes the serum potassium level is 3.1 mEq/L.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer the digoxin as scheduled and recheck potassium in 24 hours.
B. Hold the digoxin dose and notify the healthcare provider immediately.
C. Give the digoxin with a potassium supplement and monitor the cardiac rhythm.
D. Administer half the prescribed digoxin dose and document the rationale.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L is below normal (3.5-5.0
mEq/L), so the nurse must hold the digoxin and notify the provider. Administering digoxin with low
potassium could precipitate life-threatening dysrhythmias.
Q2 Question 2 of 75
A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV push to a client with acute
pulmonary edema. The client also has a serum magnesium level of 1.4 mg/dL. Which
nursing intervention is the highest priority before giving the medication?
A. Assess the client's blood pressure and heart rate before administration.
B. Verify the medication using two patient identifiers and the MAR.
C. Check the client's serum potassium and notify the provider of the low magnesium.
D. Ensure the client has voided within the past hour before giving the diuretic.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes renal wasting of magnesium and potassium. A magnesium level
of 1.4 mg/dL is low (normal 1.7-2.2 mg/dL), and furosemide will worsen this deficiency, potentially causing
cardiac dysrhythmias. The nurse must address electrolyte imbalances before administration.
Q3 Question 3 of 75
TI PN Pharmacology - Proctor Exam | NGN-Style Questions & Case Studies | 2026/2027 Pharmacology ATI (PDF) 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 4
, A 54-year-old client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin 1000 mg PO twice
daily. The nurse is reviewing the client's current medications and notes the client is
also taking hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg daily. Which potential interaction should the
nurse monitor for most closely?
A. Increased risk of hypoglycemia due to additive glucose-lowering effects.
B. Decreased effectiveness of metformin due to thiazide-induced hyperglycemia.
C. Increased risk of lactic acidosis due to reduced renal perfusion from the diuretic.
D. Decreased absorption of metformin when taken with hydrochlorothiazide.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause hyperglycemia by impairing insulin secretion and
increasing insulin resistance. This may counteract the glucose-lowering effect of metformin, requiring
closer blood glucose monitoring and possible medication adjustment.
Q4 Question 4 of 75
A nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin 5 mg PO daily for atrial fibrillation. The
client's INR is 4.8. The client reports a nosebleed that has lasted 20 minutes. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A. Apply firm pressure to the nose and tilt the head back to stop the bleeding.
B. Hold the next warfarin dose and notify the healthcare provider immediately.
C. Administer vitamin K 10 mg subcutaneously as the antidote for warfarin.
D. Recheck the INR in 2 hours to confirm the elevated result before acting.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
An INR of 4.8 is supratherapeutic (therapeutic range 2.0-3.0 for atrial fibrillation) and the client has active
bleeding. The nurse must hold the next warfarin dose and notify the provider immediately. Vitamin K is
only given per provider order; the nurse should not administer it independently.
Q5 Question 5 of 75
TI PN Pharmacology - Proctor Exam | NGN-Style Questions & Case Studies | 2026/2027 Pharmacology ATI (PDF) 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 4
, A 42-year-old client is prescribed amoxicillin-clavulanate 875/125 mg PO twice daily
for 10 days for community-acquired pneumonia. The nurse is providing discharge
teaching. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?
A. I will take this medication with food to reduce stomach upset.
B. I can stop taking the antibiotic once I feel better to avoid side effects.
C. I should report any severe diarrhea or rash to my doctor right away.
D. I will drink plenty of water while taking this medication.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Antibiotics must be taken for the full prescribed course to ensure complete eradication of the infection and
prevent antibiotic resistance. Stopping early when symptoms improve is a common misconception that
leads to treatment failure and resistant organisms.
Q6 Question 6 of 75
A nurse is preparing to administer insulin glargine 20 units subcutaneously at
bedtime to a client with type 1 diabetes. The client also receives insulin lispro with
meals. Which statement by the nurse is most accurate regarding the timing of these
insulins?
A. Give the glargine and lispro together in the same syringe to reduce injections.
B. Administer glargine at the same time each day, regardless of meal timing.
C. Hold the glargine if the client skips dinner to prevent nocturnal hypoglycemia.
D. Give the glargine 30 minutes before the lispro to allow peak absorption.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Insulin glargine is a long-acting basal insulin with a flat, peakless profile that provides 24-hour coverage. It
should be administered at the same time daily for consistent glucose control and is never mixed with other
insulins. It is independent of meal timing.
Q7 Question 7 of 75
TI PN Pharmacology - Proctor Exam | NGN-Style Questions & Case Studies | 2026/2027 Pharmacology ATI (PDF) 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 4
