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Master the APEA Final: 100 Q&As with Explanations for NP Students Practice Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant Download Pdf

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Master the APEA Final: 100 Q&As with Explanations for NP Students Practice Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant Download Pdf

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Master the APEA Final: 100 Q&As with
Explanations for NP Students Practice
Questions And Correct Answers (Verified
Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant
Download Pdf


1. A test called visual fields by confrontation is used to evaluate for:

A. Central vision
B. Peripheral vision
C. Visual acuity
D. Accommodation

Correct Answer: B. Peripheral vision
Rationale: The confrontation visual field test compares the patient's peripheral
vision to the examiner's. It detects gross peripheral visual field deficits, not central
vision (Snellen chart) or acuity.




2. Koplik's spots are associated with which condition?

A. Poxvirus infections
B. Measles
C. Kawasaki's disease
D. Reye's syndrome

,Correct Answer: B. Measles
Rationale: Koplik's spots are small, white, grain-like lesions on the buccal mucosa
that appear 1–2 days before the measles rash. They are pathognomonic for measles
(rubeola).




3. Which nerve root primarily corresponds to the ankle jerk reflex?

A. L4
B. L5
C. S1
D. S2

Correct Answer: C. S1
Rationale: The ankle jerk (Achilles) reflex is primarily mediated by the S1 nerve
root. It is commonly tested to assess lower motor neuron function at the S1 level.




4. At what age does vision normally become approximately 20/20?

A. 6 weeks
B. 4 months
C. 3 to 4 years
D. 6 years

Correct Answer: D. 6 years
Rationale: Visual acuity develops progressively. By age 6 years, most children
achieve 20/20 vision. Earlier ages (6 weeks–4 years) show less developed visual
acuity.

,5. Cranial Nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal) is responsible for:

A. Visual acuity
B. Swallowing and rise of the palate, gag reflex
C. Shoulder shrug
D. Tongue movement

Correct Answer: B. Swallowing and rise of the palate, gag reflex
Rationale: CN IX (Glossopharyngeal) provides motor innervation to the
stylopharyngeus and sensory innervation to the pharynx, contributing to
swallowing, palatal elevation, and the gag reflex (along with CN X).




6. During an integumentary assessment, the nurse notes that the client's
fingernails are very thin and concave. The nurse knows the client needs
medical follow-up to rule out which condition?

A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Vitamin A deficiency
D. Peripheral vascular disease

Correct Answer: B. Iron deficiency anemia
Rationale: Thin, concave nails with spoon-shaped deformity (koilonychia) are a
classic sign of chronic iron deficiency anemia. Diabetes and PVD do not typically
present with this nail change.

, 7. A patient presents with periorbital erythema and edema, fever, and nasal
drainage. The nurse practitioner should:

A. Prescribe antihistamines and observe
B. Start aggressive antibiotic therapy
C. Recommend warm compresses
D. Order allergy testing

Correct Answer: B. Start aggressive antibiotic therapy
Rationale: This presentation suggests periorbital (preseptal) cellulitis, a bacterial
infection requiring prompt antibiotic treatment. Allergy or observation would be
inappropriate and could lead to complications.




8. All of the following are classified as activities of daily living (ADLs) except:

A. Ability to feed self
B. Ability to manage bladder and bowel elimination
C. Personal hygiene and grooming
D. Grocery shopping

Correct Answer: D. Grocery shopping
Rationale: Basic ADLs include feeding, toileting, hygiene, dressing, and
ambulation. Grocery shopping is an Instrumental Activity of Daily Living (IADL),
not a basic ADL.




9. Which of the following is an example of subjective data that may be
collected during a health assessment?

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