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Med Surg HESI V1 & V2 Exams Verified Questions & Answers Actual Exam 2026/2027 – Complete Exam-Style Q&As | 100% Certified Verified – Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded

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Med Surg HESI V1 & V2 Exams Verified Questions & Answers Actual Exam 2026/2027 – Complete Real-Style Q&As | 100% Correct | Cardiovascular, Respiratory, Renal, GI, Endocrine, Neuro, Musculoskeletal | Graded A+ Verified | Fluid Balance, Electrolytes, Immune, Oncology, Perioperative, Emergency | Detailed Rationales | Verified Correct Answers – Pass Guaranteed – Instant Download

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MED SURG HESI

OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM

MED SURG HESI Exams V1 And V2
- 2026/2027 Update Actual Exam
Questions With Verified Answers,
100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete
A+ Guide

Certification Exam



100 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION




TOPICS COVERED

* Heart Failure & Dysrhythmias * COPD, ARDS & Mechanical Ventilation
* GI Bleeding, Liver Failure & Renal
* Stroke,
DiseaseSeizures & Wound Care
* Diabetes, Thyroid Disorders & Perioperative
* Sepsis, Shock
Care& Multi-Organ Dysfunction




COVER PAGE - 1

, SECTION 1 | Cardiovascular & Hematologic | Q1-Q20 | MED SURG HESI Exams V1 And V2 - 2026/2027 Update Actual Exam Ques


Q1 Question 1 of 100

A 68-year-old client with a history of chronic heart failure presents to the emergency
department with worsening dyspnea, orthopnea, and bilateral crackles. The nurse notes
jugular venous distention and 3+ pitting edema in both lower extremities. Which
intervention should the nurse prioritize?

A. Administer furosemide 40 mg IV push immediately
B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position and apply supplemental oxygen
C. Insert a Foley catheter to monitor hourly urine output
D. Obtain a 12-lead ECG and cardiac enzyme panel


Correct Answer: B


Rationale:
High Fowler's positioning reduces venous return and preload, while supplemental oxygen addresses
hypoxemia from pulmonary edema. This is the immediate priority before pharmacologic interventions.
Furosemide is important but positioning and oxygenation come first. ECG and enzymes are diagnostic,
not therapeutic priorities.



Q2 Question 2 of 100

A 72-year-old client is admitted with atrial fibrillation and a heart rate of 142 bpm. The
nurse is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO. Before giving the dose, which
assessment is most critical?

A. Check the client's serum potassium level
B. Assess the client's apical pulse for 1 full minute
C. Evaluate the client's pain level on a 0-10 scale
D. Review the client's most recent chest x-ray results


Correct Answer: B


Rationale:
Digoxin slows the heart rate and can cause bradycardia; the apical pulse must be assessed for a full
minute before administration. If the pulse is below 60 bpm, the dose is typically held. While potassium is
important for digoxin toxicity risk, the immediate pre-administration check is the apical pulse.




ESI Exams V1 And V2 - 2026/2027 Update Actual Exam Questions With Verified Answers, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80%

, Q3 Question 3 of 100

A 55-year-old client had a myocardial infarction 3 days ago and is now on the cardiac
step-down unit. The nurse is teaching about cardiac rehabilitation. Which statement by the
client indicates a need for further teaching?

A. "I should avoid lifting anything heavier than 10 pounds for the next 6 weeks."
B. "I can resume sexual activity when I can climb two flights of stairs without symptoms."
C. "I will take my nitroglycerin before any activity that might cause chest pain."
D. "I should stop my exercise immediately if I feel chest discomfort or shortness of breath."


Correct Answer: C


Rationale:
Nitroglycerin is taken at the onset of chest pain, not prophylactically before activity. Taking it before
activity could mask symptoms and delay appropriate response. The other statements are correct: lifting
restrictions, stair-climbing as a sexual activity benchmark, and stopping exercise with symptoms are all
appropriate teachings.



Q4 Question 4 of 100

A 48-year-old client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril 10 mg daily. The nurse
provides discharge teaching. Which instruction is most important to include?

A. "Take this medication with food to prevent stomach upset."
B. "Rise slowly from sitting or lying positions to prevent dizziness."
C. "Avoid all potassium-rich foods while taking this medication."
D. "You may stop taking this medication once your blood pressure is normal."


Correct Answer: B


Rationale:
Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause orthostatic hypotension and first-dose syncope. Rising slowly
prevents falls. ACE inhibitors do not require food, do not require potassium avoidance (though potassium
should be monitored), and should never be stopped abruptly without provider consultation.




ESI Exams V1 And V2 - 2026/2027 Update Actual Exam Questions With Verified Answers, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80%

, Q5 Question 5 of 100

A 62-year-old client is 2 hours post-cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery. The
nurse notes that the client has a large hematoma at the insertion site and the right foot is
cool and pale. What is the nurse's priority action?

A. Apply a warm compress to the hematoma to promote absorption
B. Elevate the right leg above the level of the heart
C. Assess the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses immediately
D. Document the findings and continue routine post-procedure monitoring


Correct Answer: C


Rationale:
A cool, pale foot with a large hematoma suggests arterial compromise or bleeding. Assessing distal
pulses is the priority to evaluate perfusion. Warm compresses are contraindicated with active bleeding.
Elevation alone does not address potential arterial occlusion. Documentation is important but not the
priority over assessment.



Q6 Question 6 of 100

A 58-year-old client with peripheral arterial disease reports severe leg pain when walking
two blocks that resolves with rest. The nurse is developing a teaching plan. Which
recommendation is most appropriate?

A. "Avoid walking altogether to prevent pain episodes."
B. "Walk until the pain begins, then rest and resume when it subsides."
C. "Apply heating pads to your legs for 30 minutes before walking."
D. "Elevate your legs above heart level for 2 hours after each walk."


Correct Answer: B


Rationale:
Intermittent claudication is managed with supervised walking programs where the client walks to the
point of pain, rests until it subsides, and then resumes. This promotes collateral circulation development.
Avoiding walking worsens the condition. Heat can increase metabolic demand and worsen ischemia.
Elevation is for venous disease, not arterial.




ESI Exams V1 And V2 - 2026/2027 Update Actual Exam Questions With Verified Answers, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80%

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