NURS 611 Exam 2 V2 | NURS 611
Advanced Pathophysiology | Maryville
University of St. Louis | 2026 Q&A with
Rationale (Maryville NURS611 Exam 2
2026)
1. A patient is diagnosed with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH).
Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse anticipate?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypernatremia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: SIADH involves the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, which causes the
kidneys to reabsorb too much water. This results in dilutional hyponatremia as the
extracellular fluid volume expands. Patients must be monitored closely for neurological
changes resulting from cerebral edema.
2. Which process is the primary cause of the clinical manifestations seen in Graves’ disease?
A. Autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland
B. Pituitary adenoma secreting excess TSH
,C. Iodine deficiency leading to goiter
D. Thyroid-stimulating antibodies mimicking TSH
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Graves’ disease is an autoimmune disorder where Type II hypersensitivity
occurs through thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins. These antibodies bind to TSH
receptors on the thyroid gland, leading to overproduction of thyroid hormones. This
mechanism distinguishes it from other forms of hyperthyroidism that may involve different
triggers.
3. What is the primary underlying pathophysiology of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?
A. Insulin resistance in peripheral tissues
B. Excessive glucagon secretion from alpha cells
C. Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells
D. Inadequate dietary intake of glucose
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is characterized by an absolute insulin deficiency due
to the destruction of beta cells in the Islets of Langerhans. This is typically a T-cell mediated
autoimmune response that eventually results in the inability to regulate blood glucose.
Without exogenous insulin, these patients are at high risk for developing diabetic
ketoacidosis (DKA).
, 4. A patient with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) develops anemia. What is the most likely
cause of this finding?
A. Chronic blood loss during hemodialysis
B. Decreased production of erythropoietin
C. Inadequate dietary iron intake
D. Shortened life span of red blood cells
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The kidneys are responsible for secreting erythropoietin in response to
hypoxia, which stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. As renal function
declines in CKD, the peritubular cells cannot produce sufficient erythropoietin. This
deficiency directly leads to the development of normochromic, normocytic anemia.
5. Which of the following describes the ‘Dawn Phenomenon’ in diabetic patients?
A. Hypoglycemia followed by rebound hyperglycemia
B. Early morning hyperglycemia due to nocturnal GH release
C. Hyperglycemia caused by excessive bedtime snacks
D. Insulin-induced hypoglycemia during the night
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Dawn Phenomenon is a rise in blood glucose levels between 4 AM and 8
AM without preceding hypoglycemia. It is caused by the nocturnal surge of growth
Advanced Pathophysiology | Maryville
University of St. Louis | 2026 Q&A with
Rationale (Maryville NURS611 Exam 2
2026)
1. A patient is diagnosed with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH).
Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse anticipate?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypernatremia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: SIADH involves the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, which causes the
kidneys to reabsorb too much water. This results in dilutional hyponatremia as the
extracellular fluid volume expands. Patients must be monitored closely for neurological
changes resulting from cerebral edema.
2. Which process is the primary cause of the clinical manifestations seen in Graves’ disease?
A. Autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland
B. Pituitary adenoma secreting excess TSH
,C. Iodine deficiency leading to goiter
D. Thyroid-stimulating antibodies mimicking TSH
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Graves’ disease is an autoimmune disorder where Type II hypersensitivity
occurs through thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins. These antibodies bind to TSH
receptors on the thyroid gland, leading to overproduction of thyroid hormones. This
mechanism distinguishes it from other forms of hyperthyroidism that may involve different
triggers.
3. What is the primary underlying pathophysiology of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?
A. Insulin resistance in peripheral tissues
B. Excessive glucagon secretion from alpha cells
C. Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells
D. Inadequate dietary intake of glucose
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is characterized by an absolute insulin deficiency due
to the destruction of beta cells in the Islets of Langerhans. This is typically a T-cell mediated
autoimmune response that eventually results in the inability to regulate blood glucose.
Without exogenous insulin, these patients are at high risk for developing diabetic
ketoacidosis (DKA).
, 4. A patient with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) develops anemia. What is the most likely
cause of this finding?
A. Chronic blood loss during hemodialysis
B. Decreased production of erythropoietin
C. Inadequate dietary iron intake
D. Shortened life span of red blood cells
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The kidneys are responsible for secreting erythropoietin in response to
hypoxia, which stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. As renal function
declines in CKD, the peritubular cells cannot produce sufficient erythropoietin. This
deficiency directly leads to the development of normochromic, normocytic anemia.
5. Which of the following describes the ‘Dawn Phenomenon’ in diabetic patients?
A. Hypoglycemia followed by rebound hyperglycemia
B. Early morning hyperglycemia due to nocturnal GH release
C. Hyperglycemia caused by excessive bedtime snacks
D. Insulin-induced hypoglycemia during the night
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Dawn Phenomenon is a rise in blood glucose levels between 4 AM and 8
AM without preceding hypoglycemia. It is caused by the nocturnal surge of growth
