BSN HESI 266
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
BSN HESI 266 Exam (2026/2027
Update) Questions & Verified
Answers, 100% Guaranteed Pass ||
Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale
College
Medical-Surgical Nursing | Nightingale College
100 100% 2026/2027
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Heart Failure & Cardiac Disorders Diabetes Mellitus & Endocrine Disorders
Hypertension & CAD Management Renal Failure & Electrolyte Balance
COPD & Respiratory Failure Stroke & Neurologic Emergencies
COVER PAGE - 1
SI 266 Exam (2026/2027 Update) Questions & Verified Answers, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale College - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Pag
, SECTION 1 | Cardiovascular & Hematologic | Q1-Q20 | BSN HESI 266 Exam (2026/2027 Update) Questions & Verified A
Q1 Question 1 of 100
A 68-year-old client with a history of heart failure is admitted with worsening dyspnea and
bilateral crackles. The nurse notes jugular venous distension and 3+ pitting edema in both
lower extremities. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A. Administer the prescribed IV furosemide
B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
D. Call the provider to request an echocardiogram
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
High-Fowler's positioning reduces venous return and immediately decreases preload, easing respiratory distress. While
furosemide is critical, positioning is the fastest first step to improve oxygenation. The ECG and echocardiogram are
important but do not address the immediate respiratory compromise.
Q2 Question 2 of 100
A 55-year-old client with hypertension reports a persistent dry cough since starting a new
antihypertensive medication two weeks ago. Which medication is most likely responsible?
A. Amlodipine
B. Lisinopril
C. Metoprolol
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril commonly cause a dry, nonproductive cough due to bradykinin accumulation.
Amlodipine causes peripheral edema, metoprolol causes bradycardia and fatigue, and hydrochlorothiazide causes
electrolyte imbalances rather than cough.
SI 266 Exam (2026/2027 Update) Questions & Verified Answers, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale College - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Pag
, Q3 Question 3 of 100
A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse reviews the client's INR result
of 4.2. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Hold the next dose and notify the provider
B. Administer vitamin K immediately
C. Continue the current dose as prescribed
D. Draw a repeat INR in 24 hours without changing therapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
An INR of 4.2 is above the usual therapeutic range of 2.0-3.0 for atrial fibrillation. The nurse should hold the next dose
and notify the provider to evaluate for bleeding risk. Vitamin K is reserved for active bleeding or dangerously elevated
INR. Continuing the dose or delaying action increases bleeding risk.
Q4 Question 4 of 100
A 72-year-old client recovering from a myocardial infarction asks the nurse why aspirin is
prescribed daily. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A. It prevents blood clots from forming in your coronary arteries
B. It lowers your blood pressure over time
C. It reduces chest pain by dilating your vessels
D. It dissolves existing clots in your heart muscle
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Aspirin irreversibly inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of thrombus formation in coronary arteries. It does not
lower blood pressure, relieve angina through vasodilation, or dissolve clots. Clot dissolution requires thrombolytics.
SI 266 Exam (2026/2027 Update) Questions & Verified Answers, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale College - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Pag
, Q5 Question 5 of 100
The nurse is caring for a client with severe anemia whose hemoglobin is 6.8 g/dL. The client
reports fatigue, shortness of breath on minimal exertion, and palpitations. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
A. Pale conjunctivae
B. Resting heart rate of 118 beats per minute
C. Decreased appetite
D. Cold extremities
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A resting heart rate of 118 indicates compensatory tachycardia in response to severe anemia and decreased
oxygen-carrying capacity. This places the client at risk for myocardial ischemia and heart failure. While pallor and cold
extremities are expected, tachycardia signals cardiovascular decompensation requiring urgent attention.
Q6 Question 6 of 100
A client with peripheral arterial disease reports severe leg pain when walking two blocks that
resolves with rest. The nurse is teaching about risk factor modification. Which statement by
the client indicates understanding?
A. I should keep my legs elevated above my heart when sitting
B. I will start a daily walking program and stop smoking
C. I need to wear tight compression stockings during the day
D. I should soak my feet in warm water every evening
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Supervised exercise therapy and smoking cessation are the most effective non-surgical interventions for PAD. Elevating
legs worsens arterial perfusion, compression stockings are contraindicated in PAD, and soaking feet risks burns due to
neuropathy.
SI 266 Exam (2026/2027 Update) Questions & Verified Answers, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale College - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Pag
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
BSN HESI 266 Exam (2026/2027
Update) Questions & Verified
Answers, 100% Guaranteed Pass ||
Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale
College
Medical-Surgical Nursing | Nightingale College
100 100% 2026/2027
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Heart Failure & Cardiac Disorders Diabetes Mellitus & Endocrine Disorders
Hypertension & CAD Management Renal Failure & Electrolyte Balance
COPD & Respiratory Failure Stroke & Neurologic Emergencies
COVER PAGE - 1
SI 266 Exam (2026/2027 Update) Questions & Verified Answers, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale College - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Pag
, SECTION 1 | Cardiovascular & Hematologic | Q1-Q20 | BSN HESI 266 Exam (2026/2027 Update) Questions & Verified A
Q1 Question 1 of 100
A 68-year-old client with a history of heart failure is admitted with worsening dyspnea and
bilateral crackles. The nurse notes jugular venous distension and 3+ pitting edema in both
lower extremities. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A. Administer the prescribed IV furosemide
B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
D. Call the provider to request an echocardiogram
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
High-Fowler's positioning reduces venous return and immediately decreases preload, easing respiratory distress. While
furosemide is critical, positioning is the fastest first step to improve oxygenation. The ECG and echocardiogram are
important but do not address the immediate respiratory compromise.
Q2 Question 2 of 100
A 55-year-old client with hypertension reports a persistent dry cough since starting a new
antihypertensive medication two weeks ago. Which medication is most likely responsible?
A. Amlodipine
B. Lisinopril
C. Metoprolol
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril commonly cause a dry, nonproductive cough due to bradykinin accumulation.
Amlodipine causes peripheral edema, metoprolol causes bradycardia and fatigue, and hydrochlorothiazide causes
electrolyte imbalances rather than cough.
SI 266 Exam (2026/2027 Update) Questions & Verified Answers, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale College - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Pag
, Q3 Question 3 of 100
A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse reviews the client's INR result
of 4.2. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Hold the next dose and notify the provider
B. Administer vitamin K immediately
C. Continue the current dose as prescribed
D. Draw a repeat INR in 24 hours without changing therapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
An INR of 4.2 is above the usual therapeutic range of 2.0-3.0 for atrial fibrillation. The nurse should hold the next dose
and notify the provider to evaluate for bleeding risk. Vitamin K is reserved for active bleeding or dangerously elevated
INR. Continuing the dose or delaying action increases bleeding risk.
Q4 Question 4 of 100
A 72-year-old client recovering from a myocardial infarction asks the nurse why aspirin is
prescribed daily. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A. It prevents blood clots from forming in your coronary arteries
B. It lowers your blood pressure over time
C. It reduces chest pain by dilating your vessels
D. It dissolves existing clots in your heart muscle
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Aspirin irreversibly inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of thrombus formation in coronary arteries. It does not
lower blood pressure, relieve angina through vasodilation, or dissolve clots. Clot dissolution requires thrombolytics.
SI 266 Exam (2026/2027 Update) Questions & Verified Answers, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale College - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Pag
, Q5 Question 5 of 100
The nurse is caring for a client with severe anemia whose hemoglobin is 6.8 g/dL. The client
reports fatigue, shortness of breath on minimal exertion, and palpitations. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
A. Pale conjunctivae
B. Resting heart rate of 118 beats per minute
C. Decreased appetite
D. Cold extremities
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A resting heart rate of 118 indicates compensatory tachycardia in response to severe anemia and decreased
oxygen-carrying capacity. This places the client at risk for myocardial ischemia and heart failure. While pallor and cold
extremities are expected, tachycardia signals cardiovascular decompensation requiring urgent attention.
Q6 Question 6 of 100
A client with peripheral arterial disease reports severe leg pain when walking two blocks that
resolves with rest. The nurse is teaching about risk factor modification. Which statement by
the client indicates understanding?
A. I should keep my legs elevated above my heart when sitting
B. I will start a daily walking program and stop smoking
C. I need to wear tight compression stockings during the day
D. I should soak my feet in warm water every evening
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Supervised exercise therapy and smoking cessation are the most effective non-surgical interventions for PAD. Elevating
legs worsens arterial perfusion, compression stockings are contraindicated in PAD, and soaking feet risks burns due to
neuropathy.
SI 266 Exam (2026/2027 Update) Questions & Verified Answers, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale College - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Pag
