NUR 242
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
NUR 242 Exam 1 (2026/2027) |
Med-Surg Nursing | Galen
College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF
2026/2027
Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College
75 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Nursing Process in Med-Surg Settings Heart Failure & Dysrhythmia Management
Fluid Volume Deficit & Electrolyte Imbalances Wound Healing & Pressure Injury Prevention
Preoperative Assessment & Patient Education Postoperative Complications & Pain Management
COVER PAGE - 1
NUR 242 Exam 1 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 of 40
,oundations of Medical-Surgical Nursing | Q1-Q15 | NUR 242 Exam 1 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2
Q1 Question 1 of 75
A 68-year-old patient with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the
medical-surgical unit for blood glucose stabilization. The nurse is developing a plan of care
using the nursing process. Which action by the nurse best demonstrates the evaluation
phase?
A. Documenting the patient's blood glucose readings every 4 hours
B. Comparing the patient's current blood glucose levels to the target range established in the care
plan
C. Teaching the patient about carbohydrate counting and meal timing
D. Collaborating with the dietitian to create a diabetic meal plan
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Evaluation involves comparing actual patient outcomes to expected outcomes defined in the care plan. While
documentation (A) supports evaluation, it is not evaluation itself. Teaching (C) is an intervention, and collaborating with
the dietitian (D) is part of planning. Only option B directly compares outcomes to goals, which is the core of evaluation.
Q2 Question 2 of 75
A 54-year-old patient recovering from a total knee replacement reports pain rated 7/10. The
nurse administers the prescribed hydrocodone-acetaminophen and returns 45 minutes later.
Which finding best indicates the medication was effective?
A. The patient is sleeping quietly with a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
B. The patient rates pain as 3/10 and is able to perform ankle pumps without grimacing
C. The patient requests additional pain medication before the next scheduled dose
D. The patient's blood pressure has increased from 128/82 to 142/90 mmHg
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Effective pain management is demonstrated by reduced pain scores and improved functional ability. A respiratory rate of
10 (A) indicates possible opioid-induced respiratory depression, not effectiveness. Requesting more medication (C)
suggests inadequate relief. Elevated blood pressure (D) is a sign of continued pain or stress, not relief.
Q3 Question 3 of 75
NUR 242 Exam 1 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 40
, Q3 (continued) Question 3 of 75
A nurse is caring for a 72-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) who has been on bed rest for 3 days. During morning assessment, the nurse notes
bilateral crackles in the lung bases and mild peripheral edema. Which nursing diagnosis is
most appropriate?
A. Ineffective Airway Clearance related to excessive secretions
B. Impaired Gas Exchange related to alveolar-capillary membrane changes
C. Excess Fluid Volume related to compromised regulatory mechanisms
D. Activity Intolerance related to imbalance between oxygen supply and demand
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Bilateral crackles and peripheral edema in a patient on prolonged bed rest are classic signs of fluid volume excess, often
due to decreased mobility affecting venous return and fluid redistribution. While COPD can cause impaired gas
exchange (B), the new findings of crackles and edema point more specifically to fluid overload. Ineffective airway
clearance (A) would present with productive cough and rhonchi.
Q4 Question 4 of 75
A 45-year-old patient is admitted with community-acquired pneumonia. The nurse reviews the
medication orders and notes an antibiotic is scheduled to start at 1400. At 1345, the patient
reports nausea and asks to delay the dose. What is the nurse's best response?
A. Administer the antibiotic as scheduled because timing is critical for therapeutic levels
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider that the patient is refusing treatment
C. Assess the severity of nausea, offer an antiemetic if appropriate, and administer the antibiotic
as close to the scheduled time as possible
D. Skip this dose and reschedule it for the next scheduled administration time
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
The nurse must balance the therapeutic need for timely antibiotic administration with patient comfort. Assessing the
severity of nausea and offering supportive measures (antiemetic) while still administering the medication near the
scheduled time is the best approach. Administering despite significant nausea (A) could lead to vomiting and loss of the
dose. Simply holding the dose (B) or skipping it (D) compromises infection management.
Q5 Question 5 of 75
A nurse is delegating tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) on a busy
medical-surgical unit. Which task is most appropriate to delegate to the UAP?
NUR 242 Exam 1 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 40
, Q5 (continued) Question 5 of 75
A. Assessing a postoperative patient's surgical incision for signs of infection
B. Measuring and recording the intake and output of a patient with heart failure
C. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic patient how to perform blood glucose monitoring
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of pain medication administered 30 minutes ago
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Measuring and recording intake and output is a routine, non-invasive task that does not require clinical judgment and is
appropriate for UAP delegation. Assessment of surgical incisions (A), patient education (C), and evaluation of medication
effectiveness (D) all require nursing judgment and licensure, making them non-delegable tasks.
Q6 Question 6 of 75
A 38-year-old patient with Crohn's disease is admitted with an acute exacerbation. The nurse
notes the patient has lost 12 pounds in the past month and has albumin of 2.8 g/dL. Which
nursing intervention should be the priority?
A. Initiate a high-fiber diet to promote bowel regularity
B. Collaborate with the dietitian to provide high-protein, high-calorie, low-residue nutrition
C. Restrict oral intake and initiate total parenteral nutrition immediately
D. Encourage the patient to eat three large meals per day to maximize caloric intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A patient with Crohn's exacerbation, significant weight loss, and low albumin needs high-protein, high-calorie nutrition to
address malnutrition, but low-residue to minimize bowel irritation during the acute phase. High-fiber (A) would worsen
symptoms. TPN (C) is overly aggressive unless the patient is NPO or has severe malabsorption. Large meals (D) may
be poorly tolerated; small, frequent meals are preferred.
Q7 Question 7 of 75
A nurse is caring for a 62-year-old patient with a history of atrial fibrillation who is receiving
warfarin. The patient's INR is 4.2. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Administer the scheduled warfarin dose and continue monitoring
B. Hold the next warfarin dose and notify the provider immediately
C. Administer vitamin K 10 mg subcutaneously without contacting the provider
D. Increase the patient's fluid intake to 3 liters per day to dilute the drug
NUR 242 Exam 1 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 40
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
NUR 242 Exam 1 (2026/2027) |
Med-Surg Nursing | Galen
College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF
2026/2027
Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College
75 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Nursing Process in Med-Surg Settings Heart Failure & Dysrhythmia Management
Fluid Volume Deficit & Electrolyte Imbalances Wound Healing & Pressure Injury Prevention
Preoperative Assessment & Patient Education Postoperative Complications & Pain Management
COVER PAGE - 1
NUR 242 Exam 1 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 of 40
,oundations of Medical-Surgical Nursing | Q1-Q15 | NUR 242 Exam 1 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2
Q1 Question 1 of 75
A 68-year-old patient with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the
medical-surgical unit for blood glucose stabilization. The nurse is developing a plan of care
using the nursing process. Which action by the nurse best demonstrates the evaluation
phase?
A. Documenting the patient's blood glucose readings every 4 hours
B. Comparing the patient's current blood glucose levels to the target range established in the care
plan
C. Teaching the patient about carbohydrate counting and meal timing
D. Collaborating with the dietitian to create a diabetic meal plan
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Evaluation involves comparing actual patient outcomes to expected outcomes defined in the care plan. While
documentation (A) supports evaluation, it is not evaluation itself. Teaching (C) is an intervention, and collaborating with
the dietitian (D) is part of planning. Only option B directly compares outcomes to goals, which is the core of evaluation.
Q2 Question 2 of 75
A 54-year-old patient recovering from a total knee replacement reports pain rated 7/10. The
nurse administers the prescribed hydrocodone-acetaminophen and returns 45 minutes later.
Which finding best indicates the medication was effective?
A. The patient is sleeping quietly with a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
B. The patient rates pain as 3/10 and is able to perform ankle pumps without grimacing
C. The patient requests additional pain medication before the next scheduled dose
D. The patient's blood pressure has increased from 128/82 to 142/90 mmHg
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Effective pain management is demonstrated by reduced pain scores and improved functional ability. A respiratory rate of
10 (A) indicates possible opioid-induced respiratory depression, not effectiveness. Requesting more medication (C)
suggests inadequate relief. Elevated blood pressure (D) is a sign of continued pain or stress, not relief.
Q3 Question 3 of 75
NUR 242 Exam 1 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 40
, Q3 (continued) Question 3 of 75
A nurse is caring for a 72-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) who has been on bed rest for 3 days. During morning assessment, the nurse notes
bilateral crackles in the lung bases and mild peripheral edema. Which nursing diagnosis is
most appropriate?
A. Ineffective Airway Clearance related to excessive secretions
B. Impaired Gas Exchange related to alveolar-capillary membrane changes
C. Excess Fluid Volume related to compromised regulatory mechanisms
D. Activity Intolerance related to imbalance between oxygen supply and demand
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Bilateral crackles and peripheral edema in a patient on prolonged bed rest are classic signs of fluid volume excess, often
due to decreased mobility affecting venous return and fluid redistribution. While COPD can cause impaired gas
exchange (B), the new findings of crackles and edema point more specifically to fluid overload. Ineffective airway
clearance (A) would present with productive cough and rhonchi.
Q4 Question 4 of 75
A 45-year-old patient is admitted with community-acquired pneumonia. The nurse reviews the
medication orders and notes an antibiotic is scheduled to start at 1400. At 1345, the patient
reports nausea and asks to delay the dose. What is the nurse's best response?
A. Administer the antibiotic as scheduled because timing is critical for therapeutic levels
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider that the patient is refusing treatment
C. Assess the severity of nausea, offer an antiemetic if appropriate, and administer the antibiotic
as close to the scheduled time as possible
D. Skip this dose and reschedule it for the next scheduled administration time
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
The nurse must balance the therapeutic need for timely antibiotic administration with patient comfort. Assessing the
severity of nausea and offering supportive measures (antiemetic) while still administering the medication near the
scheduled time is the best approach. Administering despite significant nausea (A) could lead to vomiting and loss of the
dose. Simply holding the dose (B) or skipping it (D) compromises infection management.
Q5 Question 5 of 75
A nurse is delegating tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) on a busy
medical-surgical unit. Which task is most appropriate to delegate to the UAP?
NUR 242 Exam 1 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 40
, Q5 (continued) Question 5 of 75
A. Assessing a postoperative patient's surgical incision for signs of infection
B. Measuring and recording the intake and output of a patient with heart failure
C. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic patient how to perform blood glucose monitoring
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of pain medication administered 30 minutes ago
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Measuring and recording intake and output is a routine, non-invasive task that does not require clinical judgment and is
appropriate for UAP delegation. Assessment of surgical incisions (A), patient education (C), and evaluation of medication
effectiveness (D) all require nursing judgment and licensure, making them non-delegable tasks.
Q6 Question 6 of 75
A 38-year-old patient with Crohn's disease is admitted with an acute exacerbation. The nurse
notes the patient has lost 12 pounds in the past month and has albumin of 2.8 g/dL. Which
nursing intervention should be the priority?
A. Initiate a high-fiber diet to promote bowel regularity
B. Collaborate with the dietitian to provide high-protein, high-calorie, low-residue nutrition
C. Restrict oral intake and initiate total parenteral nutrition immediately
D. Encourage the patient to eat three large meals per day to maximize caloric intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A patient with Crohn's exacerbation, significant weight loss, and low albumin needs high-protein, high-calorie nutrition to
address malnutrition, but low-residue to minimize bowel irritation during the acute phase. High-fiber (A) would worsen
symptoms. TPN (C) is overly aggressive unless the patient is NPO or has severe malabsorption. Large meals (D) may
be poorly tolerated; small, frequent meals are preferred.
Q7 Question 7 of 75
A nurse is caring for a 62-year-old patient with a history of atrial fibrillation who is receiving
warfarin. The patient's INR is 4.2. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Administer the scheduled warfarin dose and continue monitoring
B. Hold the next warfarin dose and notify the provider immediately
C. Administer vitamin K 10 mg subcutaneously without contacting the provider
D. Increase the patient's fluid intake to 3 liters per day to dilute the drug
NUR 242 Exam 1 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 40
