HEMATOLOGY FINAL EXAM NEWEST 2026 ACTUAL
EXAM TEST BANK| HEMATOLOGY FINAL EXAM
REVIEW WITH COMPLETE 550 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ (BRAND NEW!!)
1. A 35-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pallor, and
heavy menstrual bleeding. Labs: Hgb 8.2 g/dL, MCV 72 fL,
RDW elevated, serum ferritin 6 ng/mL. The most likely diagnosis
is:
A) Anemia of chronic disease
B) Iron deficiency anemia
C) Thalassemia trait
D) Sideroblastic anemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Microcytic anemia (low MCV) with low ferritin and
1
,elevated RDW is iron deficiency anemia (IDA). Heavy menstrual
bleeding is the cause.
2. Which laboratory finding is most specific for iron deficiency
anemia?
A) Low serum iron
B) Low ferritin
C) High total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)
D) Low transferrin saturation
Answer: B
Rationale: Ferritin reflects body iron stores. Low ferritin (<30
ng/mL) is highly specific for iron deficiency.
3. A 45-year-old man with chronic kidney disease has Hgb 9.0
g/dL, MCV 98 fL, reticulocyte count low. The most likely cause is:
A) Iron deficiency
2
,B) Anemia of chronic disease (ACD) / anemia of CKD
(erythropoietin deficiency)
C) Vitamin B12 deficiency
D) Hemolysis
Answer: B
Rationale: CKD causes erythropoietin deficiency → normocytic
anemia with low reticulocytes.
4. A 60-year-old vegan presents with macrocytic anemia,
glossitis, and peripheral neuropathy. Labs: Hgb 9.5 g/dL, MCV
110 fL, vitamin B12 120 pg/mL (low). The most likely diagnosis
is:
A) Folate deficiency
B) Vitamin B12 deficiency
C) Iron deficiency
D) Myelodysplastic syndrome
3
, Answer: B
Rationale: Macrocytic anemia + neurologic symptoms
(neuropathy) = B12 deficiency. Folate deficiency causes
macrocytosis but no neuropathy.
5. A patient with B12 deficiency has a positive Schilling test
(stage I) corrected with intrinsic factor. This indicates:
A) Pernicious anemia (lack of intrinsic factor)
B) Dietary deficiency
C) Bacterial overgrowth
D) Malabsorption from ileal disease
Answer: A
Rationale: Schilling test: stage I low → corrected with intrinsic
factor = pernicious anemia (autoimmune destruction of gastric
parietal cells).
4
EXAM TEST BANK| HEMATOLOGY FINAL EXAM
REVIEW WITH COMPLETE 550 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ (BRAND NEW!!)
1. A 35-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pallor, and
heavy menstrual bleeding. Labs: Hgb 8.2 g/dL, MCV 72 fL,
RDW elevated, serum ferritin 6 ng/mL. The most likely diagnosis
is:
A) Anemia of chronic disease
B) Iron deficiency anemia
C) Thalassemia trait
D) Sideroblastic anemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Microcytic anemia (low MCV) with low ferritin and
1
,elevated RDW is iron deficiency anemia (IDA). Heavy menstrual
bleeding is the cause.
2. Which laboratory finding is most specific for iron deficiency
anemia?
A) Low serum iron
B) Low ferritin
C) High total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)
D) Low transferrin saturation
Answer: B
Rationale: Ferritin reflects body iron stores. Low ferritin (<30
ng/mL) is highly specific for iron deficiency.
3. A 45-year-old man with chronic kidney disease has Hgb 9.0
g/dL, MCV 98 fL, reticulocyte count low. The most likely cause is:
A) Iron deficiency
2
,B) Anemia of chronic disease (ACD) / anemia of CKD
(erythropoietin deficiency)
C) Vitamin B12 deficiency
D) Hemolysis
Answer: B
Rationale: CKD causes erythropoietin deficiency → normocytic
anemia with low reticulocytes.
4. A 60-year-old vegan presents with macrocytic anemia,
glossitis, and peripheral neuropathy. Labs: Hgb 9.5 g/dL, MCV
110 fL, vitamin B12 120 pg/mL (low). The most likely diagnosis
is:
A) Folate deficiency
B) Vitamin B12 deficiency
C) Iron deficiency
D) Myelodysplastic syndrome
3
, Answer: B
Rationale: Macrocytic anemia + neurologic symptoms
(neuropathy) = B12 deficiency. Folate deficiency causes
macrocytosis but no neuropathy.
5. A patient with B12 deficiency has a positive Schilling test
(stage I) corrected with intrinsic factor. This indicates:
A) Pernicious anemia (lack of intrinsic factor)
B) Dietary deficiency
C) Bacterial overgrowth
D) Malabsorption from ileal disease
Answer: A
Rationale: Schilling test: stage I low → corrected with intrinsic
factor = pernicious anemia (autoimmune destruction of gastric
parietal cells).
4
