,NU 136 Exam 2 | Galen College
| 2026 Update
1. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of acyclovir?
A) Inhibition of viral neuraminidase
B) Inhibition of viral DNA polymerase
C) Inhibition of viral protease
D) Inhibition of viral uncoating
Correct Answer: Inhibition of viral DNA polymerase
Rationale: Acyclovir is a nucleoside analog that is selectively phosphorylated by viral thymidine kinase
and then inhibits viral DNA polymerase, terminating viral DNA chain elongation. It is most effective
against herpes simplex and varicella-zoster viruses.
2. The nurse is teaching a patient about the use of clotrimazole troches for oral candidiasis. The patient
should be instructed to
A) swallow the troche whole with water
B) allow the troche to dissolve slowly in the mouth
C) chew the troche and swallow immediately
D) take the troche with a meal
Correct Answer: Allow the troche to dissolve slowly in the mouth
Rationale: Clotrimazole troches are designed to dissolve slowly in the mouth, providing prolonged
contact with the oral mucosa to treat fungal infections. They should not be swallowed whole or chewed.
3. A patient with HIV is prescribed zidovudine. The nurse should monitor for which serious adverse
effect?
,A) Nephrotoxicity
B) Ototoxicity
C) Bone marrow suppression
D) Hepatotoxicity
Correct Answer: Bone marrow suppression
Rationale: Zidovudine (AZT), a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, can cause significant bone
marrow suppression, leading to neutropenia and anemia. Complete blood counts must be monitored
regularly.
4. The nurse is caring for a patient receiving amphotericin B for a systemic fungal infection. Which
electrolyte imbalance should the nurse anticipate?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypercalcemia
D) Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: Hypokalemia
Rationale: Amphotericin B disrupts renal tubular function, causing significant potassium and magnesium
loss. Serum electrolytes and renal function must be monitored closely, and supplementation is often
required.
5. A patient receiving isoniazid for tuberculosis should be instructed to report which symptom?
A) Increased appetite
B) Numbness or tingling in the extremities
C) Insomnia
D) Increased salivation
, Correct Answer: Numbness or tingling in the extremities
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy due to vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) depletion.
Pyridoxine is often prescribed concurrently to prevent this adverse effect.
6. The nurse is teaching a patient about rifampin therapy for tuberculosis. The patient should be
informed that
A) the medication has no effect on body fluids
B) urine, sweat, and tears may turn reddish-orange
C) the medication is safe during pregnancy without precautions
D) alcohol intake is encouraged in moderation
Correct Answer: Urine, sweat, and tears may turn reddish-orange
Rationale: Rifampin causes a harmless reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine,
sweat, tears, and saliva. Patients should be warned to avoid staining contact lenses and clothing.
7. Which antiviral medication is used specifically for the treatment of influenza?
A) Acyclovir
B) Ganciclovir
C) Oseltamivir
D) Ribavirin
Correct Answer: Oseltamivir
Rationale: Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) is a neuraminidase inhibitor used to treat and prevent influenza A and
B. Acyclovir is for herpes; ganciclovir is for CMV; ribavirin is for RSV and hepatitis C.
8. The nurse is caring for a patient receiving vancomycin for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.
Which laboratory value is most important to monitor?
| 2026 Update
1. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of acyclovir?
A) Inhibition of viral neuraminidase
B) Inhibition of viral DNA polymerase
C) Inhibition of viral protease
D) Inhibition of viral uncoating
Correct Answer: Inhibition of viral DNA polymerase
Rationale: Acyclovir is a nucleoside analog that is selectively phosphorylated by viral thymidine kinase
and then inhibits viral DNA polymerase, terminating viral DNA chain elongation. It is most effective
against herpes simplex and varicella-zoster viruses.
2. The nurse is teaching a patient about the use of clotrimazole troches for oral candidiasis. The patient
should be instructed to
A) swallow the troche whole with water
B) allow the troche to dissolve slowly in the mouth
C) chew the troche and swallow immediately
D) take the troche with a meal
Correct Answer: Allow the troche to dissolve slowly in the mouth
Rationale: Clotrimazole troches are designed to dissolve slowly in the mouth, providing prolonged
contact with the oral mucosa to treat fungal infections. They should not be swallowed whole or chewed.
3. A patient with HIV is prescribed zidovudine. The nurse should monitor for which serious adverse
effect?
,A) Nephrotoxicity
B) Ototoxicity
C) Bone marrow suppression
D) Hepatotoxicity
Correct Answer: Bone marrow suppression
Rationale: Zidovudine (AZT), a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, can cause significant bone
marrow suppression, leading to neutropenia and anemia. Complete blood counts must be monitored
regularly.
4. The nurse is caring for a patient receiving amphotericin B for a systemic fungal infection. Which
electrolyte imbalance should the nurse anticipate?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypercalcemia
D) Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: Hypokalemia
Rationale: Amphotericin B disrupts renal tubular function, causing significant potassium and magnesium
loss. Serum electrolytes and renal function must be monitored closely, and supplementation is often
required.
5. A patient receiving isoniazid for tuberculosis should be instructed to report which symptom?
A) Increased appetite
B) Numbness or tingling in the extremities
C) Insomnia
D) Increased salivation
, Correct Answer: Numbness or tingling in the extremities
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy due to vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) depletion.
Pyridoxine is often prescribed concurrently to prevent this adverse effect.
6. The nurse is teaching a patient about rifampin therapy for tuberculosis. The patient should be
informed that
A) the medication has no effect on body fluids
B) urine, sweat, and tears may turn reddish-orange
C) the medication is safe during pregnancy without precautions
D) alcohol intake is encouraged in moderation
Correct Answer: Urine, sweat, and tears may turn reddish-orange
Rationale: Rifampin causes a harmless reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine,
sweat, tears, and saliva. Patients should be warned to avoid staining contact lenses and clothing.
7. Which antiviral medication is used specifically for the treatment of influenza?
A) Acyclovir
B) Ganciclovir
C) Oseltamivir
D) Ribavirin
Correct Answer: Oseltamivir
Rationale: Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) is a neuraminidase inhibitor used to treat and prevent influenza A and
B. Acyclovir is for herpes; ganciclovir is for CMV; ribavirin is for RSV and hepatitis C.
8. The nurse is caring for a patient receiving vancomycin for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.
Which laboratory value is most important to monitor?
