ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXAM 2026 CONPREHENSIVE QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS|ALL PASSED!!
Question 1
A nurse is preparing to administer morphine IV to a client who reports a pain level of 9 on a
scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Check the client’s temperature
B) Count the client’s respiratory rate
C) Administer docusate sodium
D) Assess the client’s bowel sounds
E) Evaluate the client's oriented status
Correct Answer: B) Count the client’s respiratory rate
Rationale: Morphine is a narcotic analgesic that can cause severe respiratory depression.
According to the nursing process, the nurse must assess the client's physiological status—
specifically the respiratory rate—before administration. If the respiratory rate is less than
12/min, the medication should be withheld and the provider notified.
Question 2
A client who has been receiving high doses of morphine for post-operative pain becomes
unarousable with a respiratory rate of 6/min. Which medication should the nurse anticipate
administering?
A) Flumazenil
B) Naloxone
C) Atropine
D) Protamine sulfate
E) Acetylcysteine
Correct Answer: B) Naloxone
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid-induced
respiratory depression and sedation. Flumazenil is used for benzodiazepine overdose,
Atropine for bradycardia, Protamine sulfate for heparin reversal, and Acetylcysteine for
acetaminophen toxicity.
Question 3
A nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which of the following findings should the
nurse expect?
A) Pain in the right lower quadrant
B) Epigastric pain radiating to the back
C) Hypertension and bradycardia
D) Increased serum calcium levels
E) Pain relief when lying supine
Correct Answer: B) Epigastric pain radiating to the back
Rationale: Acute pancreatitis typically presents as severe, steady epigastric or left upper
, 2
quadrant pain that radiates to the back. Clients often experience relief in the fetal position
or sitting upright leaning forward, rather than lying supine.
Question 4
A nurse is assessing a client’s ECG strip and notes ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF.
What does this finding indicate?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Digitalis toxicity
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Atrial fibrillation
E) Normal sinus rhythm
Correct Answer: C) Myocardial infarction
Rationale: ST-segment elevation is a clinical indicator of myocardial injury or acute
infarction (STEMI). Leads II, III, and aVF specifically monitor the inferior wall of the
heart. Immediate intervention is required to restore blood flow to the myocardium.
Question 5
A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is experiencing uterine atony. Which of the
following is the most common cause of this condition?
A) High-fiber diet
B) Distended bladder
C) Orthostatic hypotension
D) Early ambulation
E) Maternal fatigue
Correct Answer: B) Distended bladder
Rationale: A distended bladder displaces the uterus and prevents it from contracting
effectively (involution). This failure to contract, known as uterine atony, is the leading
cause of primary postpartum hemorrhage. Emptying the bladder is a priority nursing
intervention.
Question 6
A nurse is assessing an infant who has pyloric stenosis. Which of the following findings should
the nurse expect?
A) Jelly-like stools
B) Projectile vomiting
C) Frequent diarrhea
D) Increased appetite
E) Sunken fontanels
Correct Answer: B) Projectile vomiting
Rationale: Pyloric stenosis is the narrowing of the pylorus (the opening from the stomach to
, 3
the small intestine). This causes forceful, projectile vomiting typically occurring shortly
after feeding. This can lead to dehydration and metabolic alkalosis.
Question 7
A nurse is assessing a client for suicidal ideation. Which of the following behaviors indicates the
highest immediate risk for completed suicide?
A) The client discusses feeling sad and hopeless
B) The client shows a sudden improvement in mood and energy
C) The client refuses to sign a no-suicide contract
D) The client attends a group therapy session
E) The client asks for a PRN anxiety medication
Correct Answer: B) The client shows a sudden improvement in mood and energy
Rationale: A sudden increase in energy or a "lifting" of depression often indicates that the
client has finally made a decision to complete suicide and now has the energy to carry out
their plan. This period is the most dangerous for the client.
Question 8
A nurse is monitoring a client receiving a continuous heparin infusion for a pulmonary embolus.
Which laboratory value should the nurse use to adjust the infusion rate?
A) Prothrombin time (PT)
B) International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D) Hemoglobin and hematocrit
E) Platelet count
Correct Answer: C) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Rationale: The aPTT is used to monitor the effectiveness of unfractionated heparin. The
goal of therapy is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. PT and INR are used to
monitor Warfarin therapy.
Question 9
A client is being discharged on Warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client
indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will use an electric razor for shaving."
B) "I will eat more spinach and kale to stay healthy."
C) "I will report any unusual bruising to my doctor."
D) "I will have my blood checked regularly."
E) "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush."
Correct Answer: B) "I will eat more spinach and kale to stay healthy."
Rationale: Green leafy vegetables like spinach and kale are high in Vitamin K, which is the
antagonist for Warfarin. Significant changes in Vitamin K intake can interfere with the
, 4
medication's anticoagulant effects. Clients should maintain a consistent intake rather than
suddenly increasing it.
Question 10
Using the Rule of Nines, a nurse calculates the Body Surface Area (BSA) for a client with full-
thickness burns to the entire left arm and the anterior trunk. What is the percentage of the burn?
A) 18%
B) 27%
C) 36%
D) 9%
E) 45%
Correct Answer: B) 27%
Rationale: According to the Rule of Nines: the entire arm is 9%, and the anterior trunk is
18%. Therefore, 9% + 18% = 27%.
Question 11
A nurse is caring for a client in the postictal state following a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the
following is a priority nursing action?
A) Assessing the client’s orientation
B) Placing the client in a side-lying position
C) Administering an anti-epileptic medication
D) Documenting the duration of the seizure
E) Restraining the client’s limbs
Correct Answer: B) Placing the client in a side-lying position
Rationale: In the postictal phase, the client is often unconscious or semi-conscious with
increased oral secretions. The side-lying position is the priority to maintain a patent airway
and prevent aspiration.
Question 12
A nurse is caring for a client with a total hip replacement. Which of the following is a necessary
post-operative precaution?
A) Encouraging the client to cross their legs
B) Keeping the legs adducted with a pillow
C) Maintaining the hip in an abducted position
D) Flexing the hip to 120 degrees when sitting
E) Placing the client in Trendelenburg position
Correct Answer: C) Maintaining the hip in an abducted position
Rationale: Following a total hip arthroplasty, the client must keep the hip in abduction to
prevent dislocation of the new prosthesis. An abductor pillow is often used between the legs
while in bed.
CORRECT ANSWERS|ALL PASSED!!
Question 1
A nurse is preparing to administer morphine IV to a client who reports a pain level of 9 on a
scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Check the client’s temperature
B) Count the client’s respiratory rate
C) Administer docusate sodium
D) Assess the client’s bowel sounds
E) Evaluate the client's oriented status
Correct Answer: B) Count the client’s respiratory rate
Rationale: Morphine is a narcotic analgesic that can cause severe respiratory depression.
According to the nursing process, the nurse must assess the client's physiological status—
specifically the respiratory rate—before administration. If the respiratory rate is less than
12/min, the medication should be withheld and the provider notified.
Question 2
A client who has been receiving high doses of morphine for post-operative pain becomes
unarousable with a respiratory rate of 6/min. Which medication should the nurse anticipate
administering?
A) Flumazenil
B) Naloxone
C) Atropine
D) Protamine sulfate
E) Acetylcysteine
Correct Answer: B) Naloxone
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid-induced
respiratory depression and sedation. Flumazenil is used for benzodiazepine overdose,
Atropine for bradycardia, Protamine sulfate for heparin reversal, and Acetylcysteine for
acetaminophen toxicity.
Question 3
A nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which of the following findings should the
nurse expect?
A) Pain in the right lower quadrant
B) Epigastric pain radiating to the back
C) Hypertension and bradycardia
D) Increased serum calcium levels
E) Pain relief when lying supine
Correct Answer: B) Epigastric pain radiating to the back
Rationale: Acute pancreatitis typically presents as severe, steady epigastric or left upper
, 2
quadrant pain that radiates to the back. Clients often experience relief in the fetal position
or sitting upright leaning forward, rather than lying supine.
Question 4
A nurse is assessing a client’s ECG strip and notes ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF.
What does this finding indicate?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Digitalis toxicity
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Atrial fibrillation
E) Normal sinus rhythm
Correct Answer: C) Myocardial infarction
Rationale: ST-segment elevation is a clinical indicator of myocardial injury or acute
infarction (STEMI). Leads II, III, and aVF specifically monitor the inferior wall of the
heart. Immediate intervention is required to restore blood flow to the myocardium.
Question 5
A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is experiencing uterine atony. Which of the
following is the most common cause of this condition?
A) High-fiber diet
B) Distended bladder
C) Orthostatic hypotension
D) Early ambulation
E) Maternal fatigue
Correct Answer: B) Distended bladder
Rationale: A distended bladder displaces the uterus and prevents it from contracting
effectively (involution). This failure to contract, known as uterine atony, is the leading
cause of primary postpartum hemorrhage. Emptying the bladder is a priority nursing
intervention.
Question 6
A nurse is assessing an infant who has pyloric stenosis. Which of the following findings should
the nurse expect?
A) Jelly-like stools
B) Projectile vomiting
C) Frequent diarrhea
D) Increased appetite
E) Sunken fontanels
Correct Answer: B) Projectile vomiting
Rationale: Pyloric stenosis is the narrowing of the pylorus (the opening from the stomach to
, 3
the small intestine). This causes forceful, projectile vomiting typically occurring shortly
after feeding. This can lead to dehydration and metabolic alkalosis.
Question 7
A nurse is assessing a client for suicidal ideation. Which of the following behaviors indicates the
highest immediate risk for completed suicide?
A) The client discusses feeling sad and hopeless
B) The client shows a sudden improvement in mood and energy
C) The client refuses to sign a no-suicide contract
D) The client attends a group therapy session
E) The client asks for a PRN anxiety medication
Correct Answer: B) The client shows a sudden improvement in mood and energy
Rationale: A sudden increase in energy or a "lifting" of depression often indicates that the
client has finally made a decision to complete suicide and now has the energy to carry out
their plan. This period is the most dangerous for the client.
Question 8
A nurse is monitoring a client receiving a continuous heparin infusion for a pulmonary embolus.
Which laboratory value should the nurse use to adjust the infusion rate?
A) Prothrombin time (PT)
B) International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D) Hemoglobin and hematocrit
E) Platelet count
Correct Answer: C) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Rationale: The aPTT is used to monitor the effectiveness of unfractionated heparin. The
goal of therapy is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. PT and INR are used to
monitor Warfarin therapy.
Question 9
A client is being discharged on Warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client
indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will use an electric razor for shaving."
B) "I will eat more spinach and kale to stay healthy."
C) "I will report any unusual bruising to my doctor."
D) "I will have my blood checked regularly."
E) "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush."
Correct Answer: B) "I will eat more spinach and kale to stay healthy."
Rationale: Green leafy vegetables like spinach and kale are high in Vitamin K, which is the
antagonist for Warfarin. Significant changes in Vitamin K intake can interfere with the
, 4
medication's anticoagulant effects. Clients should maintain a consistent intake rather than
suddenly increasing it.
Question 10
Using the Rule of Nines, a nurse calculates the Body Surface Area (BSA) for a client with full-
thickness burns to the entire left arm and the anterior trunk. What is the percentage of the burn?
A) 18%
B) 27%
C) 36%
D) 9%
E) 45%
Correct Answer: B) 27%
Rationale: According to the Rule of Nines: the entire arm is 9%, and the anterior trunk is
18%. Therefore, 9% + 18% = 27%.
Question 11
A nurse is caring for a client in the postictal state following a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the
following is a priority nursing action?
A) Assessing the client’s orientation
B) Placing the client in a side-lying position
C) Administering an anti-epileptic medication
D) Documenting the duration of the seizure
E) Restraining the client’s limbs
Correct Answer: B) Placing the client in a side-lying position
Rationale: In the postictal phase, the client is often unconscious or semi-conscious with
increased oral secretions. The side-lying position is the priority to maintain a patent airway
and prevent aspiration.
Question 12
A nurse is caring for a client with a total hip replacement. Which of the following is a necessary
post-operative precaution?
A) Encouraging the client to cross their legs
B) Keeping the legs adducted with a pillow
C) Maintaining the hip in an abducted position
D) Flexing the hip to 120 degrees when sitting
E) Placing the client in Trendelenburg position
Correct Answer: C) Maintaining the hip in an abducted position
Rationale: Following a total hip arthroplasty, the client must keep the hip in abduction to
prevent dislocation of the new prosthesis. An abductor pillow is often used between the legs
while in bed.
