WGU D115 MASTER SET ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL
PREPARATION 2026 VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS INCLUDED
◉ In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading
known cause?
Answer: Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome
abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual disability and
fetal miscarriage.
◉ What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies?
Answer: Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and
preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal
diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic
testing that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually
performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is
a form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually
performed during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of
pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to implantation.
◉ Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote
having one chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one
chromosome with a missing gene?
Answer: Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused
by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby
affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a
microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
,◉ How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations?
Answer: The disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may
provide an unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter
may not show signs of the disease because she has the other X (the only
X the father can give to a female) to cancel it out.
◉ Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among
the entire population to the disease rate in an unexposed population?
Answer: Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence
of disease.
◉ What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based
on?
Answer: Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial
diseases. Observation and evaluation of each case individually provides
the most thorough and accurate assessment.
◉ What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair.
Answer: The imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene pair.
◉ What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired
inflammation and wound healing?
Answer: The underlying chronic illness exists.
,A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the
body's reserves to fight against illness.
◉ Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion?
Answer: Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
◉ What Phagocytes bacteria?
Answer: Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing bacteria.
◉ What is the first response to a foreign pathogen?
Answer: Helper T cells
◉ Which characteristic is the most important determinant of
immunogenicity when considering the antigen?
Answer: Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize
something foreign.
◉ How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is
administered, causing an ABO incompatibility?
Answer: The complement pathway is activated in response to blood
incompatibility.
◉ What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis?
Answer: An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic
dermatitis.
, ◉ Which four infections are considered fungal infections?
Answer: Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes
dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin mycoses,
including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida
and aspergillus.
◉ When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results
can detect infection?
Answer: Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual
transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to
result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false
negative test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high
likelihood of exposure is suspected.
◉ What is a characteristic of exotoxins?
Answer: Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.
◉ Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased
risk for developing colon cancer?
Answer: The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely
studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon
cancer.
◉ Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over
40 years most likely to develop?
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL
PREPARATION 2026 VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS INCLUDED
◉ In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading
known cause?
Answer: Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome
abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual disability and
fetal miscarriage.
◉ What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies?
Answer: Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and
preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal
diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic
testing that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually
performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is
a form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually
performed during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of
pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to implantation.
◉ Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote
having one chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one
chromosome with a missing gene?
Answer: Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused
by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby
affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a
microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
,◉ How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations?
Answer: The disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may
provide an unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter
may not show signs of the disease because she has the other X (the only
X the father can give to a female) to cancel it out.
◉ Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among
the entire population to the disease rate in an unexposed population?
Answer: Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence
of disease.
◉ What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based
on?
Answer: Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial
diseases. Observation and evaluation of each case individually provides
the most thorough and accurate assessment.
◉ What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair.
Answer: The imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene pair.
◉ What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired
inflammation and wound healing?
Answer: The underlying chronic illness exists.
,A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the
body's reserves to fight against illness.
◉ Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion?
Answer: Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
◉ What Phagocytes bacteria?
Answer: Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing bacteria.
◉ What is the first response to a foreign pathogen?
Answer: Helper T cells
◉ Which characteristic is the most important determinant of
immunogenicity when considering the antigen?
Answer: Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize
something foreign.
◉ How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is
administered, causing an ABO incompatibility?
Answer: The complement pathway is activated in response to blood
incompatibility.
◉ What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis?
Answer: An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic
dermatitis.
, ◉ Which four infections are considered fungal infections?
Answer: Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes
dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin mycoses,
including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida
and aspergillus.
◉ When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results
can detect infection?
Answer: Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual
transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to
result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false
negative test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high
likelihood of exposure is suspected.
◉ What is a characteristic of exotoxins?
Answer: Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.
◉ Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased
risk for developing colon cancer?
Answer: The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely
studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon
cancer.
◉ Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over
40 years most likely to develop?
