ATI MATERNAL-NEWBORN
NURSING NEW MULTIPLE-
CHOICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES LATEST EXAM
UPDATE
1. A nurse is calculating a client's estimated date of delivery (EDD) using Nagele's rule. The
client's last menstrual period began on May 10. What is the EDD?
A. February 3
B. February 10
C. February 17
D. March 10
Answer: C. February 17
*Rationale: Nagele's rule: subtract 3 months, add 7 days, and add 1 year. May (5th month) minus
3 months = February (2nd month). 10 + 7 days = 17. Therefore, EDD is February 17 of the
following year.*
2. A nurse is assessing a client at 10 weeks of gestation who reports severe nausea and
vomiting with weight loss. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Morning sickness
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
C. Gastroenteritis
D. Preeclampsia
Answer: B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
,Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by severe, persistent nausea and vomiting
during pregnancy that leads to weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances, requiring
medical intervention.
3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the glucose tolerance test. Which
instruction should the nurse include?
A. "You should eat a high-carbohydrate meal the night before the test."
B. "You will need to fast for 8 to 14 hours before the test."
C. "You can drink water during the fasting period."
D. "You will have your blood drawn once, after drinking the glucose solution."
Answer: B. "You will need to fast for 8 to 14 hours before the test."
*Rationale: For a glucose tolerance test, the client must fast for 8-14 hours. After a fasting blood
draw, the client drinks a glucose solution, and blood is drawn at specific intervals (1, 2, and 3
hours) afterward.*
4. A nurse is reviewing the prescription for a client receiving magnesium sulfate for severe
preeclampsia. Which medication should be available at the bedside?
A. Calcium gluconate
B. Naloxone
C. Flumazenil
D. Protamine sulfate
Answer: A. Calcium gluconate
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. It should be readily
available at the bedside for any client receiving magnesium sulfate.
5. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected placenta previa. Which finding should the
nurse expect?
A. Rigid, board-like abdomen
B. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
C. Severe abdominal pain with dark red bleeding
,D. Absent fetal heart tones
Answer: B. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
Rationale: Placenta previa (placenta covering the cervical os) typically presents with painless,
bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. Painful bleeding is associated with abruptio
placentae.
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor. The nurse observes a variable deceleration
pattern on the fetal heart rate monitor. Which of the following actions should the nurse
take first?
A. Administer oxygen via face mask
B. Position the client in a left lateral position
C. Perform a vaginal examination
D. Increase the IV infusion rate
Answer: B. Position the client in a left lateral position
Rationale: Variable decelerations are often caused by umbilical cord compression.
Changing the maternal position can help alleviate this and improve fetal oxygenation .
7. A nurse is caring for a client in active labor. The nurse notes late decelerations on the
fetal monitor tracing. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Increase the infusion rate of the IV fluid
B. Position the client on her side
C. Administer oxygen via face mask
D. Elevate the client's legs
Answer: B. Position the client on her side
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The first action should be to
position the client on her side to improve blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus .
8. A nurse is assessing a client in active labor. A vaginal examination reveals the cervix is 6
cm dilated, 80% effaced, and the presenting part is at 0 station. Which stage of labor is the
client in?
, A. First stage, latent phase
B. First stage, active phase
C. Second stage of labor
D. Third stage of labor
Answer: B. First stage, active phase
*Rationale: The first stage of labor includes the latent phase (0-6 cm dilation) and the active
phase (6-10 cm dilation). With the cervix at 6 cm, the client is in the active phase of the first
stage.*
9. A nurse is caring for a client who has just received an epidural block. Which assessment
finding is most important for the nurse to monitor?
A. Maternal temperature
B. Maternal blood pressure
C. Fetal heart rate variability
D. Urinary output
Answer: B. Maternal blood pressure
Rationale: Epidural blocks can cause maternal hypotension due to sympathetic blockade, which
can decrease placental perfusion. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently after epidural
placement.
10. A nurse is assessing a client in the second stage of labor. Which finding should the nurse
report to the provider?
A. Contractions lasting 60 seconds
B. Urge to push
C. Fetal heart rate of 100 beats/min between contractions
D. Presenting part at +2 station
Answer: C. Fetal heart rate of 100 beats/min between contractions
*Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 100 bpm is bradycardic and indicates fetal distress.
Normal FHR is 110-160 bpm. This finding requires immediate intervention.*
NURSING NEW MULTIPLE-
CHOICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES LATEST EXAM
UPDATE
1. A nurse is calculating a client's estimated date of delivery (EDD) using Nagele's rule. The
client's last menstrual period began on May 10. What is the EDD?
A. February 3
B. February 10
C. February 17
D. March 10
Answer: C. February 17
*Rationale: Nagele's rule: subtract 3 months, add 7 days, and add 1 year. May (5th month) minus
3 months = February (2nd month). 10 + 7 days = 17. Therefore, EDD is February 17 of the
following year.*
2. A nurse is assessing a client at 10 weeks of gestation who reports severe nausea and
vomiting with weight loss. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Morning sickness
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
C. Gastroenteritis
D. Preeclampsia
Answer: B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
,Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by severe, persistent nausea and vomiting
during pregnancy that leads to weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances, requiring
medical intervention.
3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the glucose tolerance test. Which
instruction should the nurse include?
A. "You should eat a high-carbohydrate meal the night before the test."
B. "You will need to fast for 8 to 14 hours before the test."
C. "You can drink water during the fasting period."
D. "You will have your blood drawn once, after drinking the glucose solution."
Answer: B. "You will need to fast for 8 to 14 hours before the test."
*Rationale: For a glucose tolerance test, the client must fast for 8-14 hours. After a fasting blood
draw, the client drinks a glucose solution, and blood is drawn at specific intervals (1, 2, and 3
hours) afterward.*
4. A nurse is reviewing the prescription for a client receiving magnesium sulfate for severe
preeclampsia. Which medication should be available at the bedside?
A. Calcium gluconate
B. Naloxone
C. Flumazenil
D. Protamine sulfate
Answer: A. Calcium gluconate
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. It should be readily
available at the bedside for any client receiving magnesium sulfate.
5. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected placenta previa. Which finding should the
nurse expect?
A. Rigid, board-like abdomen
B. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
C. Severe abdominal pain with dark red bleeding
,D. Absent fetal heart tones
Answer: B. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
Rationale: Placenta previa (placenta covering the cervical os) typically presents with painless,
bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. Painful bleeding is associated with abruptio
placentae.
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor. The nurse observes a variable deceleration
pattern on the fetal heart rate monitor. Which of the following actions should the nurse
take first?
A. Administer oxygen via face mask
B. Position the client in a left lateral position
C. Perform a vaginal examination
D. Increase the IV infusion rate
Answer: B. Position the client in a left lateral position
Rationale: Variable decelerations are often caused by umbilical cord compression.
Changing the maternal position can help alleviate this and improve fetal oxygenation .
7. A nurse is caring for a client in active labor. The nurse notes late decelerations on the
fetal monitor tracing. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Increase the infusion rate of the IV fluid
B. Position the client on her side
C. Administer oxygen via face mask
D. Elevate the client's legs
Answer: B. Position the client on her side
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The first action should be to
position the client on her side to improve blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus .
8. A nurse is assessing a client in active labor. A vaginal examination reveals the cervix is 6
cm dilated, 80% effaced, and the presenting part is at 0 station. Which stage of labor is the
client in?
, A. First stage, latent phase
B. First stage, active phase
C. Second stage of labor
D. Third stage of labor
Answer: B. First stage, active phase
*Rationale: The first stage of labor includes the latent phase (0-6 cm dilation) and the active
phase (6-10 cm dilation). With the cervix at 6 cm, the client is in the active phase of the first
stage.*
9. A nurse is caring for a client who has just received an epidural block. Which assessment
finding is most important for the nurse to monitor?
A. Maternal temperature
B. Maternal blood pressure
C. Fetal heart rate variability
D. Urinary output
Answer: B. Maternal blood pressure
Rationale: Epidural blocks can cause maternal hypotension due to sympathetic blockade, which
can decrease placental perfusion. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently after epidural
placement.
10. A nurse is assessing a client in the second stage of labor. Which finding should the nurse
report to the provider?
A. Contractions lasting 60 seconds
B. Urge to push
C. Fetal heart rate of 100 beats/min between contractions
D. Presenting part at +2 station
Answer: C. Fetal heart rate of 100 beats/min between contractions
*Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 100 bpm is bradycardic and indicates fetal distress.
Normal FHR is 110-160 bpm. This finding requires immediate intervention.*
