ATI Fundamentals Retake Exam ACTUAL
EXAM 2026/2027 | 75 Exam-Style Questions
Detailed Rationales | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
[Section 1: Safety & Infection Control]
Q1: A nurse is caring for a client with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff) infection. The client needs to be
transported to radiology for a CT scan. What PPE should the transport team wear?
A. Gloves and gown
B. Gloves only
C. Gloves, gown, and surgical mask
D. Gloves, gown, and N95 respirator
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: C. diff is transmitted via the fecal-oral route, requiring contact precautions (gloves and
gown). A surgical mask is unnecessary unless there is risk of splash or spray. An N95 respirator is for
airborne precautions (e.g., TB, measles). Gloves alone are insufficient as the gown protects clothing from
contamination.
Q2: A nurse is preparing to administer a medication via nasogastric tube to a client with a confirmed
diagnosis of tuberculosis. The nurse should wear which PPE?
A. Gloves and gown
B. Gloves, gown, and surgical mask
C. Gloves, gown, and N95 respirator
D. Gloves only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tuberculosis requires airborne precautions, which include an N95 respirator or higher-level
protection (gloves, gown, and N95). A surgical mask does not filter airborne particles adequately.
Contact precautions alone are insufficient for TB. Gloves only provide no respiratory protection.
,Q3: A nurse is caring for a client on droplet precautions for influenza. The client asks the nurse to sit and
talk for a while. What is the appropriate nursing action?
A. Sit within 3 feet of the client while wearing a surgical mask
B. Sit within 3 feet of the client without a mask
C. Maintain a distance of greater than 6 feet and wear a surgical mask
D. Wear an N95 respirator and sit at the bedside
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Droplet precautions require a surgical mask when working within 3 feet (approximately 1
meter) of the client. Sitting beyond 6 feet is unnecessary and may impair therapeutic communication.
An N95 respirator is not required for droplet precautions. Sitting without a mask violates infection
control protocol.
Q4: A nurse is reviewing fire safety protocols with new staff. A fire breaks out in a client's room. What is
the correct sequence of actions?
A. Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish
B. Alarm, Rescue, Confine, Extinguish
C. Rescue, Confine, Alarm, Extinguish
D. Extinguish, Rescue, Alarm, Confine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The RACE acronym stands for Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish/Evacuate. Rescue clients in
immediate danger first, then activate the alarm, confine the fire by closing doors, and attempt
extinguishment only if the fire is small and the nurse is trained. Any other sequence delays rescue and
risks lives.
Q5: A nurse is using a fire extinguisher for the first time. What is the correct technique?
A. Aim at the top of the flames, squeeze the handle, and sweep side to side
B. Aim at the base of the fire, squeeze the handle, and sweep side to side
C. Aim at the center of the flames, pull the pin, and sweep upward
D. Aim at the base, pull the pin, and hold the handle continuously
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The PASS technique is Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep. Aim at the base of the fire (not the
flames), squeeze the handle, and sweep side to side. Aiming at the top of the flames is ineffective.
Pulling the pin is the first step, not part of aiming. Holding the handle continuously without squeezing
releases no extinguishing agent.
, Q6: A nurse is caring for a client with a history of seizures. The client is admitted for observation. What is
the priority safety intervention?
A. Place the client in a private room at the end of the hall
B. Pad the side rails and keep the bed in the lowest position
C. Apply wrist restraints to prevent injury during seizures
D. Place a tongue blade at the bedside for use during seizures
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Padding side rails and keeping the bed in the lowest position are standard seizure
precautions. A private room at the end of the hall delays response time. Wrist restraints are
contraindicated and can cause injury. Tongue blades are no longer recommended and can cause airway
trauma or aspiration.
Q7: A nurse is caring for a client who is confused and repeatedly tries to get out of bed. The provider
orders wrist restraints. What is the nurse's priority action before applying restraints?
A. Obtain a provider's order and ensure it is renewed every 24 hours
B. Apply the restraints immediately to prevent a fall
C. Ask the family to sign a consent form for restraint use
D. Document the restraint application in the electronic health record
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A provider's order is required for restraints, and the order must be renewed every 24 hours
(or per facility policy, often every 4 hours for behavioral restraints). Restraints should never be applied
without an order. Family consent is not a substitute for a provider order. Documentation is important
but not the priority before application.
Q8: A nurse is applying a vest restraint to a client. Which action demonstrates safe restraint application?
A. Securing the restraint to the bed rail
B. Securing the restraint to the bed frame with a quick-release knot
C. Tying the restraint in a double knot to prevent loosening
D. Leaving the restraint loose enough for the client to slip out if needed
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Restraints must be secured to the bed frame (not bed rails) with a quick-release knot to
allow rapid removal in an emergency. Securing to bed rails is dangerous as the rail may be lowered.
EXAM 2026/2027 | 75 Exam-Style Questions
Detailed Rationales | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
[Section 1: Safety & Infection Control]
Q1: A nurse is caring for a client with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff) infection. The client needs to be
transported to radiology for a CT scan. What PPE should the transport team wear?
A. Gloves and gown
B. Gloves only
C. Gloves, gown, and surgical mask
D. Gloves, gown, and N95 respirator
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: C. diff is transmitted via the fecal-oral route, requiring contact precautions (gloves and
gown). A surgical mask is unnecessary unless there is risk of splash or spray. An N95 respirator is for
airborne precautions (e.g., TB, measles). Gloves alone are insufficient as the gown protects clothing from
contamination.
Q2: A nurse is preparing to administer a medication via nasogastric tube to a client with a confirmed
diagnosis of tuberculosis. The nurse should wear which PPE?
A. Gloves and gown
B. Gloves, gown, and surgical mask
C. Gloves, gown, and N95 respirator
D. Gloves only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tuberculosis requires airborne precautions, which include an N95 respirator or higher-level
protection (gloves, gown, and N95). A surgical mask does not filter airborne particles adequately.
Contact precautions alone are insufficient for TB. Gloves only provide no respiratory protection.
,Q3: A nurse is caring for a client on droplet precautions for influenza. The client asks the nurse to sit and
talk for a while. What is the appropriate nursing action?
A. Sit within 3 feet of the client while wearing a surgical mask
B. Sit within 3 feet of the client without a mask
C. Maintain a distance of greater than 6 feet and wear a surgical mask
D. Wear an N95 respirator and sit at the bedside
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Droplet precautions require a surgical mask when working within 3 feet (approximately 1
meter) of the client. Sitting beyond 6 feet is unnecessary and may impair therapeutic communication.
An N95 respirator is not required for droplet precautions. Sitting without a mask violates infection
control protocol.
Q4: A nurse is reviewing fire safety protocols with new staff. A fire breaks out in a client's room. What is
the correct sequence of actions?
A. Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish
B. Alarm, Rescue, Confine, Extinguish
C. Rescue, Confine, Alarm, Extinguish
D. Extinguish, Rescue, Alarm, Confine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The RACE acronym stands for Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish/Evacuate. Rescue clients in
immediate danger first, then activate the alarm, confine the fire by closing doors, and attempt
extinguishment only if the fire is small and the nurse is trained. Any other sequence delays rescue and
risks lives.
Q5: A nurse is using a fire extinguisher for the first time. What is the correct technique?
A. Aim at the top of the flames, squeeze the handle, and sweep side to side
B. Aim at the base of the fire, squeeze the handle, and sweep side to side
C. Aim at the center of the flames, pull the pin, and sweep upward
D. Aim at the base, pull the pin, and hold the handle continuously
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The PASS technique is Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep. Aim at the base of the fire (not the
flames), squeeze the handle, and sweep side to side. Aiming at the top of the flames is ineffective.
Pulling the pin is the first step, not part of aiming. Holding the handle continuously without squeezing
releases no extinguishing agent.
, Q6: A nurse is caring for a client with a history of seizures. The client is admitted for observation. What is
the priority safety intervention?
A. Place the client in a private room at the end of the hall
B. Pad the side rails and keep the bed in the lowest position
C. Apply wrist restraints to prevent injury during seizures
D. Place a tongue blade at the bedside for use during seizures
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Padding side rails and keeping the bed in the lowest position are standard seizure
precautions. A private room at the end of the hall delays response time. Wrist restraints are
contraindicated and can cause injury. Tongue blades are no longer recommended and can cause airway
trauma or aspiration.
Q7: A nurse is caring for a client who is confused and repeatedly tries to get out of bed. The provider
orders wrist restraints. What is the nurse's priority action before applying restraints?
A. Obtain a provider's order and ensure it is renewed every 24 hours
B. Apply the restraints immediately to prevent a fall
C. Ask the family to sign a consent form for restraint use
D. Document the restraint application in the electronic health record
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A provider's order is required for restraints, and the order must be renewed every 24 hours
(or per facility policy, often every 4 hours for behavioral restraints). Restraints should never be applied
without an order. Family consent is not a substitute for a provider order. Documentation is important
but not the priority before application.
Q8: A nurse is applying a vest restraint to a client. Which action demonstrates safe restraint application?
A. Securing the restraint to the bed rail
B. Securing the restraint to the bed frame with a quick-release knot
C. Tying the restraint in a double knot to prevent loosening
D. Leaving the restraint loose enough for the client to slip out if needed
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Restraints must be secured to the bed frame (not bed rails) with a quick-release knot to
allow rapid removal in an emergency. Securing to bed rails is dangerous as the rail may be lowered.
