GCU NUR 634 400 ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALE LATEST UPDATE ALREADT
GRADED A+
This comprehensive 400-question exam bank thoroughly covers the GCU
NUR 634 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning course. It
systematically tests knowledge of comprehensive and focused health histories,
SOAP documentation, and the sequence of physical examination techniques
(inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation). Key topics include
assessment of all body systems, cranial nerve testing, cardiac and pulmonary
auscultation findings, and identification of murmurs and adventitious breath
sounds. The questions address musculoskeletal evaluation, neurological
assessment, and diagnostic reasoning for conditions including heart failure,
coronary artery disease, pneumonia, COPD, asthma, pulmonary embolism,
and pericarditis. Additionally, the bank covers laboratory interpretation,
ECG findings, and evidence-based treatment approaches for common acute
and chronic conditions.
1) A new patient presents to establish care. Which type of health history is most
appropriate?
A) Focused history
B) Follow-up history
C) Comprehensive health history
D) Emergency history
Answer: C
Rationale: A comprehensive health history is appropriate for new patients
establishing care, as it provides a complete baseline of the patient's health status,
including past medical history, family history, social history, and review of
systems .
2) The following information is recorded in the health history: "I feel really tired."
Which category does this belong to?
,A) Chief complaint
B) Present illness
C) Personal and social history
D) Review of systems
Answer: A
Rationale: The chief complaint is the primary reason for the patient's visit, stated in
the patient's own words. "I feel really tired" is the patient's description of their
primary concern .
3) When documenting a SOAP note, which component should include the patient's
direct quotes?
A) Objective
B) Assessment
C) Plan
D) Subjective
Answer: D
Rationale: The subjective portion records the patient's own words (chief complaint,
history). Objective data is what the clinician observes or measures .
4) A patient has a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute. This finding is
documented as:
A) Bradypnea
B) Tachypnea
C) Apnea
D) Dyspnea
Answer: B
Rationale: Tachypnea is a respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths per minute in
adults. Bradypnea is a respiratory rate less than 12 breaths per minute. Apnea is the
absence of breathing. Dyspnea is the subjective feeling of difficulty breathing or
shortness of breath .
5) The correct sequence for abdominal assessment is:
A) Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
B) Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
C) Palpation, inspection, auscultation, percussion
D) Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion
Answer: B
Rationale: The correct sequence for abdominal assessment is inspection,
auscultation, percussion, then palpation. This sequence is different from other body
,systems because palpation and percussion can alter bowel sounds, so auscultation
should be performed before these techniques .
6) A nurse is assessing a patient and notes a bluish discoloration of the skin and
mucous membranes. This finding is documented as:
A) Cyanosis
B) Jaundice
C) Pallor
D) Erythema
Answer: A
Rationale: Cyanosis is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes
caused by decreased oxygen saturation in the blood. Jaundice is yellow
discoloration from elevated bilirubin, pallor is paleness from decreased blood flow
or anemia, and erythema is redness from increased blood flow .
7) Which cranial nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to stick out their
tongue and move it side to side?
A) CN IX - Glossopharyngeal
B) CN X - Vagus
C) CN XI - Spinal Accessory
D) CN XII - Hypoglossal
Answer: D
Rationale: Cranial nerve XII (Hypoglossal) controls tongue movement. The nurse
assesses this by asking the patient to stick out their tongue and move it side to side.
Shoulder shrugging tests CN XI (spinal accessory), gag reflex tests CN IX and X,
and smiling tests CN VII (facial nerve) .
8) Which finding during cardiac auscultation would be considered normal?
A) S3 heart sound in an adult
B) S4 heart sound
C) S1 and S2 heart sounds
D) Murmur at the apex
Answer: C
Rationale: S1 and S2 are the normal heart sounds. S1 represents closure of the
mitral and tricuspid valves, and S2 represents closure of the aortic and pulmonic
valves. S3 can be normal in children and young adults but is abnormal in older
adults and may indicate heart failure. S4 is always abnormal and indicates
decreased ventricular compliance .
9) The medical term for "swimmer's ear" is:
, A) Otitis media
B) Otitis externa
C) Mastoiditis
D) Tympanitis
Answer: B
Rationale: Otitis externa is inflammation or infection of the external ear canal,
commonly called "swimmer's ear" because it often occurs after water exposure .
10) When performing a respiratory assessment, which finding indicates normal
breath sounds over the peripheral lung fields?
A) Bronchial
B) Bronchovesicular
C) Vesicular
D) Tracheal
Answer: C
Rationale: Vesicular breath sounds are soft, low-pitched sounds normally heard
over the peripheral lung fields .
11) A patient presents with a chief complaint of "crushing" chest pain. Which of
the following is considered "subjective" data?
A) Blood pressure of 160/94 mmHg
B) Patient stating the pain radiates to the left jaw
C) EKG showing ST-segment elevation
D) Diaphoretic skin noted on physical exam
Answer: B
Rationale: Subjective data is what the patient experiences and reports (History),
while objective data is what the clinician observes or measures (Physical
Exam/Labs) .
12) During a cardiac assessment, the Nurse Practitioner (NP) notes a low-pitched
sound heard best with the bell at the apex during early diastole. This is most likely:
A) S4 (Atrial Gallop)
B) S3 (Ventricular Gallop)
C) Mitral Stenosis murmur
D) Pericardial Friction Rub
Answer: B
Rationale: S3 occurs during the rapid ventricular filling phase of diastole. It is
often a sign of fluid overload or heart failure in adults over age 40 .
13) Which cranial nerve is responsible for the movement of the tongue?
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALE LATEST UPDATE ALREADT
GRADED A+
This comprehensive 400-question exam bank thoroughly covers the GCU
NUR 634 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning course. It
systematically tests knowledge of comprehensive and focused health histories,
SOAP documentation, and the sequence of physical examination techniques
(inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation). Key topics include
assessment of all body systems, cranial nerve testing, cardiac and pulmonary
auscultation findings, and identification of murmurs and adventitious breath
sounds. The questions address musculoskeletal evaluation, neurological
assessment, and diagnostic reasoning for conditions including heart failure,
coronary artery disease, pneumonia, COPD, asthma, pulmonary embolism,
and pericarditis. Additionally, the bank covers laboratory interpretation,
ECG findings, and evidence-based treatment approaches for common acute
and chronic conditions.
1) A new patient presents to establish care. Which type of health history is most
appropriate?
A) Focused history
B) Follow-up history
C) Comprehensive health history
D) Emergency history
Answer: C
Rationale: A comprehensive health history is appropriate for new patients
establishing care, as it provides a complete baseline of the patient's health status,
including past medical history, family history, social history, and review of
systems .
2) The following information is recorded in the health history: "I feel really tired."
Which category does this belong to?
,A) Chief complaint
B) Present illness
C) Personal and social history
D) Review of systems
Answer: A
Rationale: The chief complaint is the primary reason for the patient's visit, stated in
the patient's own words. "I feel really tired" is the patient's description of their
primary concern .
3) When documenting a SOAP note, which component should include the patient's
direct quotes?
A) Objective
B) Assessment
C) Plan
D) Subjective
Answer: D
Rationale: The subjective portion records the patient's own words (chief complaint,
history). Objective data is what the clinician observes or measures .
4) A patient has a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute. This finding is
documented as:
A) Bradypnea
B) Tachypnea
C) Apnea
D) Dyspnea
Answer: B
Rationale: Tachypnea is a respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths per minute in
adults. Bradypnea is a respiratory rate less than 12 breaths per minute. Apnea is the
absence of breathing. Dyspnea is the subjective feeling of difficulty breathing or
shortness of breath .
5) The correct sequence for abdominal assessment is:
A) Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
B) Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
C) Palpation, inspection, auscultation, percussion
D) Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion
Answer: B
Rationale: The correct sequence for abdominal assessment is inspection,
auscultation, percussion, then palpation. This sequence is different from other body
,systems because palpation and percussion can alter bowel sounds, so auscultation
should be performed before these techniques .
6) A nurse is assessing a patient and notes a bluish discoloration of the skin and
mucous membranes. This finding is documented as:
A) Cyanosis
B) Jaundice
C) Pallor
D) Erythema
Answer: A
Rationale: Cyanosis is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes
caused by decreased oxygen saturation in the blood. Jaundice is yellow
discoloration from elevated bilirubin, pallor is paleness from decreased blood flow
or anemia, and erythema is redness from increased blood flow .
7) Which cranial nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to stick out their
tongue and move it side to side?
A) CN IX - Glossopharyngeal
B) CN X - Vagus
C) CN XI - Spinal Accessory
D) CN XII - Hypoglossal
Answer: D
Rationale: Cranial nerve XII (Hypoglossal) controls tongue movement. The nurse
assesses this by asking the patient to stick out their tongue and move it side to side.
Shoulder shrugging tests CN XI (spinal accessory), gag reflex tests CN IX and X,
and smiling tests CN VII (facial nerve) .
8) Which finding during cardiac auscultation would be considered normal?
A) S3 heart sound in an adult
B) S4 heart sound
C) S1 and S2 heart sounds
D) Murmur at the apex
Answer: C
Rationale: S1 and S2 are the normal heart sounds. S1 represents closure of the
mitral and tricuspid valves, and S2 represents closure of the aortic and pulmonic
valves. S3 can be normal in children and young adults but is abnormal in older
adults and may indicate heart failure. S4 is always abnormal and indicates
decreased ventricular compliance .
9) The medical term for "swimmer's ear" is:
, A) Otitis media
B) Otitis externa
C) Mastoiditis
D) Tympanitis
Answer: B
Rationale: Otitis externa is inflammation or infection of the external ear canal,
commonly called "swimmer's ear" because it often occurs after water exposure .
10) When performing a respiratory assessment, which finding indicates normal
breath sounds over the peripheral lung fields?
A) Bronchial
B) Bronchovesicular
C) Vesicular
D) Tracheal
Answer: C
Rationale: Vesicular breath sounds are soft, low-pitched sounds normally heard
over the peripheral lung fields .
11) A patient presents with a chief complaint of "crushing" chest pain. Which of
the following is considered "subjective" data?
A) Blood pressure of 160/94 mmHg
B) Patient stating the pain radiates to the left jaw
C) EKG showing ST-segment elevation
D) Diaphoretic skin noted on physical exam
Answer: B
Rationale: Subjective data is what the patient experiences and reports (History),
while objective data is what the clinician observes or measures (Physical
Exam/Labs) .
12) During a cardiac assessment, the Nurse Practitioner (NP) notes a low-pitched
sound heard best with the bell at the apex during early diastole. This is most likely:
A) S4 (Atrial Gallop)
B) S3 (Ventricular Gallop)
C) Mitral Stenosis murmur
D) Pericardial Friction Rub
Answer: B
Rationale: S3 occurs during the rapid ventricular filling phase of diastole. It is
often a sign of fluid overload or heart failure in adults over age 40 .
13) Which cranial nerve is responsible for the movement of the tongue?
