HESI OB MATERNITY PRACTICE EXAM | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS | ALREADY
GRADED A+ |LATEST VERSION (JUST RELEASED)
A 23-year-old client who is receiving Medicaid benefits is pregnant with her first child.
Based on knowledge of the statistics related to infant mortality, which plan should the
nurse implement with this client?
A. Refer the client to a social worker to arrange for home care
B. Recommend perinatal care from an obstetrician, not a nurse-midwife
C. Teach the client why keeping prenatal care appointments is important
D. Advise the client that neonatal intensive care may be needed
- answers-C. Teach the client why keeping prenatal care appointments is important
A 24-hour-old newborn has a pink papular rash with vesicles superimposed on the
thorax, back, and abdomen. What action should the nurse implement?
A. Notify the healthcare provider
B. Move the newborn to an isolation nursery
C. Document the finding on the infant's record
D. Obtain a culture of the vesicles
- answers-C. Document the finding on the infant's record
Erythema toxicum (or erthema neonatorum) is a newborn rash that is commonly
referred to as "flea bites," bit is a normal finding that is documented; no further action is
required
A 26-year-old, gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted to the hospital at 28-weeks gestation
in preterm labor. She is given 3 doses of terbutaline sulfate (Brethine) 0.25mg
subcutaneously to stop her labor contractions. The nurse plans to monitor for which
primary side effect of terbutaline sulfate?
A. Drowsiness and bradycardia
B. Depressed reflexes and increased respirations
C. Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness
D. A flushed, warm feeling and a dry mouth
- answers-C. Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness
Terbutaline sulfate (Brethine), a beta-sympathomimetic drug, stimulates beta-adrenergic
receptors in the uterine muscle to stop contractions. The beta-adrenergic agonist
,HESI OB MATERNITY PRACTICE EXAM | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS | ALREADY
GRADED A+ |LATEST VERSION (JUST RELEASED)
properties of the drug may cause tachycardia, increased cardiac output, restlessness,
headache, and a feeling of "nervousness".
A 30-year-old gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted to the hospital at 26-weeks gestation
in preterm labor. She is started on an IV solution of terbutaline (Brethine). Which
assessment is the highest priority for the nurse to monitor during the administration of
this drug?
A. Materna blood pressure and respirations
B. Maternal and fetal heart rates
C. Hourly urinary output
D. Deep tendon relfexes
- answers-B. Maternal and fetal heart rates
Monitoring maternal and fetal heart rates is most important when terbutaline is being
administered. Terbutaline acts as a sympathomimetic agent that stimulates both beta 1
receptors (causing tachycardia, a side effect of the drug) and stimulation of beta 2
receptors (causing uterine relaxation, a desired effect of the drug).
A 30-year-old multiparous woman who has a 3-year-old boy and a newborn girl tells the
nurse, "My son is so jealous of my daughter, I don't know how I'll ever manage both
children when I get home." How should the nurse respond?
A. "Tell the older child that he is a big boy now and should love his new sister."
B. "Ask friends and relatives not to bring gifts to the older sibling because you do not
want to spoil him."
C. "Let the older child stay with his grandparents for the first six weeks to allow him to
adjust to the newborn."
D. "Regression in behaviors in the older child is a typical reaction so he needs attention
at this time."
- answers-D. "Regression in behaviors in the older child is a typical reaction so he
needs attention at this time."
A 35-year-old primigravida client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium
sulfate via continuous IV infusion. Which assessment data indicates to the nurse that
the client is experiencing magnesium sulfate toxicity?
A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+
B. Blood pressure 140/90
C. Respiratory rate 18/minute
D. Urine output 90 ml/4hours
- answers-D. Urine output 90 ml/4hours
Urine outputs of less than 100 ml/4 hours, absent DTRs, and a respiratory rate of less
than 12 breaths/minute are cardinal signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity.
A 38-week primigravida who works as a secretary and sits at a computer 8 hours each
day tells the nurse that her feet have begun to swell. Which instruction would be most
effective in preventing pooling of blood in the lower extremities?
, HESI OB MATERNITY PRACTICE EXAM | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS | ALREADY
GRADED A+ |LATEST VERSION (JUST RELEASED)
A. Wear support stockings
B. Reduce salt in her diet
C. Move about every hour
D. Avoid constrictive clothing
- answers-C. Move about every hour
Pooling of blood in the lower extremities results from the enlarged uterus exerting
pressure on the pelvic veins. Moving about every hour will straighten out the pelvic
veins and increase venous return.
A 4-week-old premature infant has been receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) for the last
three weeks. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the drug is effective?
A. Slowly increasing urinary output over the last week
B. Respiratory rate changes from the 40s to the 60s
C. Changes in apical heart rate from the 180s to the 140s
D. Change in indirect bilirubin from 12mg/dl to 8 mg/dl
- answers-C. Changes in apical heart rate from the 180s to the 140s
Epogen, given to prevent or treat anemia, stimulates erythropoietin production, resulting
in an increase in RBCs. Since the body has not had to compensate for anemia with an
increased heart rate, changes in heart rate from high to normal is one indicator that
Epogen is effective
A 40-week gestation primigravida client is being induced with an oxytocin secondary
infusion and complains of pain in her lower back. Which intervention should the nurse
implement?
A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
B. Place the client in a semi-Fowler's position
C. Inform the healthcare provider
D. Apply firm pressure to sacral area
- answers-D. Apply firm pressure to sacral area
A 42-week gestational client is receiving an intravenous infusion of oxytocin (Pitocin) to
augment early labor. the nurse should discontinue the oxytocin infusion for which
pattern of contractions?
A. Transition labor with contractions every 2 minutes, lasting 90 seconds each
B. Early labor with contractions every 5 minutes, lasting 40 seconds each
C. Active labor with contractions every 31 minutes, lasting 60 seconds each
D. Active labor with contractions every 3 to 3 minutes, lasting 70 to 80 seconds each
- answers-A. Transition labor with contractions every 2 minutes, lasting 90 seconds
each
When oxytocin causes uterine hyperstimulation as evidence by inadequate resting time
between contractions, the oxytocin infusion should be discontinued because placental
perfusion is impeded
GRADED A+ |LATEST VERSION (JUST RELEASED)
A 23-year-old client who is receiving Medicaid benefits is pregnant with her first child.
Based on knowledge of the statistics related to infant mortality, which plan should the
nurse implement with this client?
A. Refer the client to a social worker to arrange for home care
B. Recommend perinatal care from an obstetrician, not a nurse-midwife
C. Teach the client why keeping prenatal care appointments is important
D. Advise the client that neonatal intensive care may be needed
- answers-C. Teach the client why keeping prenatal care appointments is important
A 24-hour-old newborn has a pink papular rash with vesicles superimposed on the
thorax, back, and abdomen. What action should the nurse implement?
A. Notify the healthcare provider
B. Move the newborn to an isolation nursery
C. Document the finding on the infant's record
D. Obtain a culture of the vesicles
- answers-C. Document the finding on the infant's record
Erythema toxicum (or erthema neonatorum) is a newborn rash that is commonly
referred to as "flea bites," bit is a normal finding that is documented; no further action is
required
A 26-year-old, gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted to the hospital at 28-weeks gestation
in preterm labor. She is given 3 doses of terbutaline sulfate (Brethine) 0.25mg
subcutaneously to stop her labor contractions. The nurse plans to monitor for which
primary side effect of terbutaline sulfate?
A. Drowsiness and bradycardia
B. Depressed reflexes and increased respirations
C. Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness
D. A flushed, warm feeling and a dry mouth
- answers-C. Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness
Terbutaline sulfate (Brethine), a beta-sympathomimetic drug, stimulates beta-adrenergic
receptors in the uterine muscle to stop contractions. The beta-adrenergic agonist
,HESI OB MATERNITY PRACTICE EXAM | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS | ALREADY
GRADED A+ |LATEST VERSION (JUST RELEASED)
properties of the drug may cause tachycardia, increased cardiac output, restlessness,
headache, and a feeling of "nervousness".
A 30-year-old gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted to the hospital at 26-weeks gestation
in preterm labor. She is started on an IV solution of terbutaline (Brethine). Which
assessment is the highest priority for the nurse to monitor during the administration of
this drug?
A. Materna blood pressure and respirations
B. Maternal and fetal heart rates
C. Hourly urinary output
D. Deep tendon relfexes
- answers-B. Maternal and fetal heart rates
Monitoring maternal and fetal heart rates is most important when terbutaline is being
administered. Terbutaline acts as a sympathomimetic agent that stimulates both beta 1
receptors (causing tachycardia, a side effect of the drug) and stimulation of beta 2
receptors (causing uterine relaxation, a desired effect of the drug).
A 30-year-old multiparous woman who has a 3-year-old boy and a newborn girl tells the
nurse, "My son is so jealous of my daughter, I don't know how I'll ever manage both
children when I get home." How should the nurse respond?
A. "Tell the older child that he is a big boy now and should love his new sister."
B. "Ask friends and relatives not to bring gifts to the older sibling because you do not
want to spoil him."
C. "Let the older child stay with his grandparents for the first six weeks to allow him to
adjust to the newborn."
D. "Regression in behaviors in the older child is a typical reaction so he needs attention
at this time."
- answers-D. "Regression in behaviors in the older child is a typical reaction so he
needs attention at this time."
A 35-year-old primigravida client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium
sulfate via continuous IV infusion. Which assessment data indicates to the nurse that
the client is experiencing magnesium sulfate toxicity?
A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+
B. Blood pressure 140/90
C. Respiratory rate 18/minute
D. Urine output 90 ml/4hours
- answers-D. Urine output 90 ml/4hours
Urine outputs of less than 100 ml/4 hours, absent DTRs, and a respiratory rate of less
than 12 breaths/minute are cardinal signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity.
A 38-week primigravida who works as a secretary and sits at a computer 8 hours each
day tells the nurse that her feet have begun to swell. Which instruction would be most
effective in preventing pooling of blood in the lower extremities?
, HESI OB MATERNITY PRACTICE EXAM | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS | ALREADY
GRADED A+ |LATEST VERSION (JUST RELEASED)
A. Wear support stockings
B. Reduce salt in her diet
C. Move about every hour
D. Avoid constrictive clothing
- answers-C. Move about every hour
Pooling of blood in the lower extremities results from the enlarged uterus exerting
pressure on the pelvic veins. Moving about every hour will straighten out the pelvic
veins and increase venous return.
A 4-week-old premature infant has been receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) for the last
three weeks. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the drug is effective?
A. Slowly increasing urinary output over the last week
B. Respiratory rate changes from the 40s to the 60s
C. Changes in apical heart rate from the 180s to the 140s
D. Change in indirect bilirubin from 12mg/dl to 8 mg/dl
- answers-C. Changes in apical heart rate from the 180s to the 140s
Epogen, given to prevent or treat anemia, stimulates erythropoietin production, resulting
in an increase in RBCs. Since the body has not had to compensate for anemia with an
increased heart rate, changes in heart rate from high to normal is one indicator that
Epogen is effective
A 40-week gestation primigravida client is being induced with an oxytocin secondary
infusion and complains of pain in her lower back. Which intervention should the nurse
implement?
A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
B. Place the client in a semi-Fowler's position
C. Inform the healthcare provider
D. Apply firm pressure to sacral area
- answers-D. Apply firm pressure to sacral area
A 42-week gestational client is receiving an intravenous infusion of oxytocin (Pitocin) to
augment early labor. the nurse should discontinue the oxytocin infusion for which
pattern of contractions?
A. Transition labor with contractions every 2 minutes, lasting 90 seconds each
B. Early labor with contractions every 5 minutes, lasting 40 seconds each
C. Active labor with contractions every 31 minutes, lasting 60 seconds each
D. Active labor with contractions every 3 to 3 minutes, lasting 70 to 80 seconds each
- answers-A. Transition labor with contractions every 2 minutes, lasting 90 seconds
each
When oxytocin causes uterine hyperstimulation as evidence by inadequate resting time
between contractions, the oxytocin infusion should be discontinued because placental
perfusion is impeded
