**Question 1. Which phase of carcinogenesis involves the irreversible genetic damage that leads to
malignant transformation?**
A) Promotion
B) Initiation
C) Progression
D) Metastasis
Answer: B
Explanation: Initiation is the first step where DNA damage occurs, creating a permanently altered cell
that can later be promoted to become malignant.
**Question 2. A 55‑year‑old woman with a new breast lump is scheduled for a core needle biopsy.
Which nursing action is most important before the procedure?**
A) Encourage deep breathing exercises
B) Verify the patient’s fasting status
C) Assess for allergies to local anesthetic
D) Obtain a baseline CBC
Answer: C
Explanation: Allergic reactions to local anesthetic can cause severe complications; confirming no allergy
is essential before injection.
**Question 3. Which tumor marker is most specific for monitoring prostate cancer recurrence?**
A) CA‑125
B) CEA
C) PSA
D) AFP
Answer: C
, Nursing Care of the Oncology Patient Ultimate Exam
Explanation: Prostate‑specific antigen (PSA) is the standard marker for detecting prostate cancer
recurrence or progression.
**Question 4. In the TNM staging system, what does the “N” component represent?**
A) Size of the primary tumor
B) Presence of distant metastasis
C) Involvement of regional lymph nodes
D) Tumor grade
Answer: C
Explanation: “N” denotes the extent of regional lymph node involvement.
**Question 5. Which of the following is a primary prevention strategy for lung cancer?**
A) Low‑dose CT screening for high‑risk smokers
B) Smoking cessation programs
C) Annual sputum cytology
D) Chemoprevention with beta‑carotene
Answer: B
Explanation: Preventing tobacco use eliminates the main cause of lung cancer, making it a primary
prevention method.
**Question 6. A patient receiving cyclophosphamide develops hemorrhagic cystitis. Which nursing
intervention is most effective for prevention?**
A) Administering prophylactic antibiotics
B) Encouraging high fluid intake
C) Applying a bladder catheter
D) Providing potassium supplements
, Nursing Care of the Oncology Patient Ultimate Exam
Answer: B
Explanation: High fluid intake dilutes urine and reduces bladder irritation caused by cyclophosphamide
metabolites.
**Question 7. Which imaging modality is most sensitive for detecting bone metastases from prostate
cancer?**
A) Plain radiography
B) CT scan
C) MRI
D) Bone scintigraphy (bone scan)
Answer: D
Explanation: Bone scans detect osteoblastic activity typical of prostate cancer metastases and are more
sensitive than plain X‑rays.
**Question 8. A nurse is preparing a patient for external beam radiation therapy. Which safety principle
should be emphasized?**
A) ALARA (As Low As Reasonably Achievable)
B) RICE (Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation)
C) ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation)
D) FAST (Face, Arms, Speech, Time)
Answer: A
Explanation: ALARA guides radiation exposure minimization for patients and staff.
**Question 9. Which of the following is a common acute side effect of cisplatin therapy?**
A) Peripheral neuropathy
B) Ototoxicity
, Nursing Care of the Oncology Patient Ultimate Exam
C) Hand‑foot syndrome
D) Alopecia
Answer: B
Explanation: Cisplatin is notorious for causing dose‑related ototoxicity, especially in pediatric patients.
**Question 10. In the WHO analgesic ladder, which step corresponds to the use of strong opioids?**
A) Step 1
B) Step 2
C) Step 3
D) Step 4
Answer: C
Explanation: Step 3 involves strong opioids for moderate to severe cancer pain.
**Question 11. A patient with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is receiving induction chemotherapy
and is now neutropenic. Which precaution is most appropriate?**
A) Place the patient on a low‑carbohydrate diet
B) Implement strict hand‑washing and protective isolation
C) Encourage early ambulation to prevent DVT
D) Provide a high‑protein diet
Answer: B
Explanation: Neutropenic precautions focus on infection control through hand hygiene and protective
isolation.
**Question 12. Which laboratory abnormality is characteristic of tumor lysis syndrome?**
A) Hypercalcemia