Nursing Sciences Examination and
Assessment Questionnaire EAQ
Ultimate Exam
Question 1. Which principle best supports respecting a patient's autonomy in nursing practice?
A) Ensuring beneficence at all costs
B) Allowing patients to make their own informed decisions
C) Prioritizing justice over individual rights
D) Following hospital policies strictly without patient input
Answer: B
Explanation: Respecting autonomy involves honoring the patient's right to make their own decisions
based on full information, which is fundamental in ethical nursing care.
Question 2. What is the primary purpose of the nursing process?
A) To document patient care accurately
B) To guide systematic patient care through assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and
evaluation
C) To replace clinical judgment with standardized protocols
D) To ensure legal compliance in healthcare settings
Answer: B
Explanation: The nursing process provides a systematic framework for delivering personalized, effective
patient care through five interconnected steps.
Question 3. Which technique is most appropriate for assessing a patient's head-to-toe physical
condition?
A) Focused assessment of the area of concern only
B) Systematic approach starting from the head and progressing to the toes
C) Using only palpation to evaluate all systems
D) Relying solely on patient history and vital signs
Answer: B
Explanation: A head-to-toe assessment ensures a comprehensive evaluation of all body systems
systematically, minimizing missed findings.
, Nursing Sciences Examination and
Assessment Questionnaire EAQ
Ultimate Exam
Question 4. Which statement accurately describes standard precautions for infection control?
A) They are only necessary for patients with known infectious diseases
B) They include hand hygiene, PPE use, and safe injection practices for all patients
C) They are optional in outpatient settings
D) They are only applicable during surgical procedures
Answer: B
Explanation: Standard precautions are basic infection control practices applicable to all patient care to
prevent transmission of pathogens.
Question 5. Which is an example of a high-priority safety intervention based on Maslow’s Hierarchy of
Needs?
A) Providing emotional support after a diagnosis
B) Ensuring airway patency in a patient with respiratory distress
C) Offering nutritional counseling
D) Assisting with recreational activities
Answer: B
Explanation: Airway patency addresses physiological needs, which are the most basic and urgent needs
in Maslow's hierarchy, requiring immediate attention.
Question 6. Which arrhythmia is characterized by irregularly irregular rhythm with no discernible P
waves on EKG?
A) Atrial Fibrillation
B) Ventricular Tachycardia
C) Sinus Bradycardia
D) Atrial Flutter
Answer: A
, Nursing Sciences Examination and
Assessment Questionnaire EAQ
Ultimate Exam
Explanation: Atrial fibrillation presents as an irregularly irregular rhythm without distinct P waves,
indicating chaotic atrial activity.
Question 7. Which medication class is primarily used to reduce myocardial oxygen demand in angina?
A) Beta-blockers
B) Diuretics
C) Calcium channel blockers
D) Nitrates
Answer: D
Explanation: Nitrates relax vascular smooth muscle, dilate coronary arteries, and reduce myocardial
oxygen demand, relieving angina.
Question 8. What is a common sign of left-sided heart failure?
A) Jugular venous distension
B) Shortness of breath and pulmonary congestion
C) Hepatomegaly
D) Peripheral edema
Answer: B
Explanation: Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion, presenting with dyspnea and
crackles on auscultation.
Question 9. Which intervention is appropriate for managing a COPD exacerbation?
A) Administering high-flow oxygen without monitoring
B) Encouraging pursed-lip breathing and administering bronchodilators
C) Positioning the patient flat on their back
D) Restricting fluid intake entirely
Answer: B
, Nursing Sciences Examination and
Assessment Questionnaire EAQ
Ultimate Exam
Explanation: Pursed-lip breathing helps reduce air trapping, and bronchodilators relieve bronchospasm
during COPD exacerbations.
Question 10. What does ABG analysis revealing a pH of 7.30 and a pCO2 of 55 mm Hg indicate?
A) Respiratory alkalosis
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Metabolic alkalosis
Answer: C
Explanation: A low pH combined with elevated pCO2 indicates respiratory acidosis, due to
hypoventilation.
Question 11. Which insulin type peaks most rapidly, necessitating careful timing around meals?
A) Long-acting insulin (Glargine)
B) Rapid-acting insulin (Lispro)
C) Intermediate-acting insulin (NPH)
D) Premixed insulin
Answer: B
Explanation: Rapid-acting insulins like Lispro have a quick peak, making them suitable for controlling
post-meal blood glucose.
Question 12. Which symptom is characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
A) Hyperglycemia, fruity breath, and Kussmaul respirations
B) Hypoglycemia, sweating, and tremors
C) Weight gain, bradycardia, and cold intolerance
D) Muscle weakness and hyponatremia
Answer: A
Assessment Questionnaire EAQ
Ultimate Exam
Question 1. Which principle best supports respecting a patient's autonomy in nursing practice?
A) Ensuring beneficence at all costs
B) Allowing patients to make their own informed decisions
C) Prioritizing justice over individual rights
D) Following hospital policies strictly without patient input
Answer: B
Explanation: Respecting autonomy involves honoring the patient's right to make their own decisions
based on full information, which is fundamental in ethical nursing care.
Question 2. What is the primary purpose of the nursing process?
A) To document patient care accurately
B) To guide systematic patient care through assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and
evaluation
C) To replace clinical judgment with standardized protocols
D) To ensure legal compliance in healthcare settings
Answer: B
Explanation: The nursing process provides a systematic framework for delivering personalized, effective
patient care through five interconnected steps.
Question 3. Which technique is most appropriate for assessing a patient's head-to-toe physical
condition?
A) Focused assessment of the area of concern only
B) Systematic approach starting from the head and progressing to the toes
C) Using only palpation to evaluate all systems
D) Relying solely on patient history and vital signs
Answer: B
Explanation: A head-to-toe assessment ensures a comprehensive evaluation of all body systems
systematically, minimizing missed findings.
, Nursing Sciences Examination and
Assessment Questionnaire EAQ
Ultimate Exam
Question 4. Which statement accurately describes standard precautions for infection control?
A) They are only necessary for patients with known infectious diseases
B) They include hand hygiene, PPE use, and safe injection practices for all patients
C) They are optional in outpatient settings
D) They are only applicable during surgical procedures
Answer: B
Explanation: Standard precautions are basic infection control practices applicable to all patient care to
prevent transmission of pathogens.
Question 5. Which is an example of a high-priority safety intervention based on Maslow’s Hierarchy of
Needs?
A) Providing emotional support after a diagnosis
B) Ensuring airway patency in a patient with respiratory distress
C) Offering nutritional counseling
D) Assisting with recreational activities
Answer: B
Explanation: Airway patency addresses physiological needs, which are the most basic and urgent needs
in Maslow's hierarchy, requiring immediate attention.
Question 6. Which arrhythmia is characterized by irregularly irregular rhythm with no discernible P
waves on EKG?
A) Atrial Fibrillation
B) Ventricular Tachycardia
C) Sinus Bradycardia
D) Atrial Flutter
Answer: A
, Nursing Sciences Examination and
Assessment Questionnaire EAQ
Ultimate Exam
Explanation: Atrial fibrillation presents as an irregularly irregular rhythm without distinct P waves,
indicating chaotic atrial activity.
Question 7. Which medication class is primarily used to reduce myocardial oxygen demand in angina?
A) Beta-blockers
B) Diuretics
C) Calcium channel blockers
D) Nitrates
Answer: D
Explanation: Nitrates relax vascular smooth muscle, dilate coronary arteries, and reduce myocardial
oxygen demand, relieving angina.
Question 8. What is a common sign of left-sided heart failure?
A) Jugular venous distension
B) Shortness of breath and pulmonary congestion
C) Hepatomegaly
D) Peripheral edema
Answer: B
Explanation: Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion, presenting with dyspnea and
crackles on auscultation.
Question 9. Which intervention is appropriate for managing a COPD exacerbation?
A) Administering high-flow oxygen without monitoring
B) Encouraging pursed-lip breathing and administering bronchodilators
C) Positioning the patient flat on their back
D) Restricting fluid intake entirely
Answer: B
, Nursing Sciences Examination and
Assessment Questionnaire EAQ
Ultimate Exam
Explanation: Pursed-lip breathing helps reduce air trapping, and bronchodilators relieve bronchospasm
during COPD exacerbations.
Question 10. What does ABG analysis revealing a pH of 7.30 and a pCO2 of 55 mm Hg indicate?
A) Respiratory alkalosis
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Metabolic alkalosis
Answer: C
Explanation: A low pH combined with elevated pCO2 indicates respiratory acidosis, due to
hypoventilation.
Question 11. Which insulin type peaks most rapidly, necessitating careful timing around meals?
A) Long-acting insulin (Glargine)
B) Rapid-acting insulin (Lispro)
C) Intermediate-acting insulin (NPH)
D) Premixed insulin
Answer: B
Explanation: Rapid-acting insulins like Lispro have a quick peak, making them suitable for controlling
post-meal blood glucose.
Question 12. Which symptom is characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
A) Hyperglycemia, fruity breath, and Kussmaul respirations
B) Hypoglycemia, sweating, and tremors
C) Weight gain, bradycardia, and cold intolerance
D) Muscle weakness and hyponatremia
Answer: A
