NURS 5432 TEST 1: COMPLETE REVIEW OF PAP SMEAR GUIDELINES, MAMMOGRAPHY RECOMMENDATIONS, FIBROADENOMA & FIBROCYSTIC BREAST DISEASE

NURS 5432 TEST 1: COMPLETE REVIEW OF PAP SMEAR GUIDELINES, MAMMOGRAPHY RECOMMENDATIONS, FIBROADENOMA & FIBROCYSTIC BREAST DISEASE 1. According to the ACS, at what age should PAP smear screening begin? A. 21 years B. 18 years C. 25 years D. 30 years Explanation: The ACS recommends starting PAP smear screening at age 25. Screening options include HPV testing every 5 years, cotesting every 5 years, or cytology every 3 years. ________________________________________ 2. How often should cotesting (PAP + HPV) be performed according to ACS guidelines? A. Every year B. Every 3 years C. Every 5 years D. Every 10 years Explanation: ACS guidelines recommend cotesting every 5 years for cervical cancer screening, along with HPV testing every 5 years or cytology every 3 years as alternative options. ________________________________________ 3. For average-risk women aged 45-54, what is the recommended breast cancer screening schedule? A. Mammogram every 2 years B. Mammogram every 3 years C. Mammogram every year D. Mammogram only if symptomatic Explanation: The ACS recommends that women aged 45-54 SHOULD get a mammogram every year for breast cancer screening. ________________________________________ 4. What is the recommended screening schedule for average-risk women aged 55 and older? A. Must continue yearly mammograms B. Can do every other year or yearly until good health for 10 more years C. Screening is no longer recommended D. MRI only Explanation: Women aged 55 and older can do mammograms every other year or yearly until they are in good health to live 10 more years. ________________________________________ 5. Which of the following is a high-risk factor for breast cancer? A. Age over 50 B. First pregnancy before age 30 C. Li-Fraumeni Syndrome D. Early menopause Explanation: Li-Fraumeni Syndrome is a high-risk factor for breast cancer. Other high-risk factors include family history of breast cancer, non-BRCA mutations, chest radiation therapy, Cowden Syndrome, and Banayan-Riley Ruvalcoba Syndrome. ________________________________________ 6. At what age do average-risk women have the OPTION to start mammogram screening every year? A. 35-39 years B. 40-44 years C. 45-54 years D. 55 and up Explanation: The ACS recommends that women aged 40-44 have the option to start annual mammogram screening. ________________________________________ 7. What is overdiagnosis in cancer screening? A. Diagnosing cancer at an early stage B. Finding cancer that wouldn't have been a problem if not found C. Diagnosing cancer in multiple family members D. Finding cancer before symptoms appear Explanation: Overdiagnosis refers to finding a cancer that would not have caused symptoms or problems during the patient's lifetime if it had not been detected. ________________________________________ 8. According to ACS, when is MRI NOT recommended for breast cancer screening? A. When cancer chance is 20% B. When cancer chance is 10% C. When cancer chance is 15% D. When cancer chance is 15-20% Explanation: The ACS recommends AGAINST MRI screening if the chance of cancer is less than 15%. ________________________________________ 9. Cervical dysplasia is best described as: A. Inflammation of the cervix B. The growth of abnormal cells in the cervix C. Infection of the cervical tissue D. Benign cervical polyps Explanation: Cervical dysplasia is defined as the growth of abnormal cells in the cervix, which can be a premalignant condition. ________________________________________ 10. What is the term for premalignant cervical disease? A. Cervical dysplasia B. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) C. Cervical carcinoma D. Cervical metaplasia Explanation: Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) is the term used to describe premalignant cervical disease. ________________________________________ 11. In CIN 1, cellular changes occur in what portion of the squamous epithelium? A. Full thickness B. Lower 1/3rd C. Lower 2/3rd D. Upper 1/3rd Explanation: CIN 1 (mild dysplasia) shows cellular changes in the lower 1/3rd of the squamous epithelium. ________________________________________ 12. CIN 2 is characterized by cellular changes in: A. Full thickness of squamous epithelium B. Lower 1/3rd of squamous epithelium C. Lower 2/3rd of squamous epithelium D. Upper half of squamous epithelium Explanation: CIN 2 (moderate dysplasia) involves cellular changes in the lower 2/3rd of the squamous epithelium. ________________________________________