SCIN255/ SCIN 255 Principles of Pathophysiology and Pharmacology: Quizzes (1-14) | Answered and graded - latest fall 2025/2026.

5/30/26, 9:01 AM Alex Birnbaum - SCIN255 K001 Fall 2025 - APEI Week 1 Quiz - Results X Attempt 1 of 1 Written Nov 8, 2025 2:36 PM - Nov 8, 2025 2:50 PM Attempt Score 100/ 100 - 100 % Overall Grade (Highest Attempt) 100 / 100 - 100 % Question 1 5/ 5 points Tissue can be inflamed but not infected. @® True O False Question 2 5/ 5 points The aging process is progressive and reversible. Q True ® False w Hide question 2 feedback SCIN255 Principles of Pathophysiology and Pharmacology All Quizzes Answered 2025/26.5/30/26, 9:01 AM Alex Birnbaum - SCIN255 K001 Fall 2025 - APEI Feedback The aging process is progressive but is not reversible. Question 3 5/ 5 points The aging process leads to death due to a decrease in the ability of the body to fight disease. @ True O False Question 4 5/ 5 points Obesity has no effect on an individual's life span. O True O] False w Hide question 4 feedback Feedback Obesity can shorten an individual's life span. Question 5 5/ 5 points Hypervitaminosis develops in individuals who consume large amounts of vitamins for extended periods of time. hitps:// ® True O False Question 6 5/ 5 points Once the heart quits functioning, the person is considered brain-dead. O True @ False w Hide question 6 feedback Feedback The criteria for determining brain death include a lack of response to stimuli, loss of all reflexes, absence of respiration or breathing effort, and a lack of brain activity as shown by an electroencephalogram (EEG). Question 7 5/ 5 points Diseases that are not lethal during the younger years could be the cause of death in older individuals. ® True O False Question 8 5/ 5 points Chromosomal and genetic abnormalities are always incompatible with life. O True ® False hitps:// w Hide question 8 feedback Feedback Numerous conditions are congenital due to chromosomal and genetic abnormalities, but they are not necessarily lethal. Question 9 5/ 5 points Immunodeficiency is the immune response of the body being unable to defend itself due to a decrease or absence of leukocytes, primarily lymphocytes. @ True O False Question 10 5/ 5 points Symptoms of inflammation include redness, pain, swelling, and warm to the touch. @ True O False Question 11 5/ 5 points The aging process is affected by such factors as: hitps:// lifestyle. heredity. stress. @ O 0O all of the above. w Hide question 11 feedback Feedback a. Lifestyle affects the aging process, but other factors are listed. b. Heredity affects the aging process, but other factors are listed. c. Stress affects the aging process, but other factors are listed. d. Lifestyle, heredity, and stress all impact the aging process. Question 12 5/ 5 points Criteria to determine brain death include: O a normal EEG. Q a normal EKG. (O rapid respiration. @ a lack of response to stimuli. W Hide question 12 feedback hitps:// Feedback a. A normal EEG would indicate normal brain activity. b. A normal EKG would not indicate brain death. c. Rapid respiration does not indicate brain death. d. A lack of response to stimuli is one criterion to determine brain death. Question 13 5/ 5 points Examples of allergens include: O house dust. (O sgrass. O pets. ® all of the above. w Hide question 13 feedback Feedback a. House dust is an allergen, but it is not the only one listed. b. Grass is an allergen, but it is not the only one listed. c. Pets are an allergen, but they are not the only ones listed. d. House dust, grass, and pets are all allergens. Question 14 5/ 5 points Cachexia describes: hitps:// O a well-nourished individual. (O an overweight individual. @ an ill, thin individual. (O anill, overweight individual. w Hide question 14 feedback Feedback a. Cachexia does not describe a well-nourished individual. b. Cachexia does not describe an overweight individual. c. Cachexia is a term used to describe any individual who has an ill, thin, wasted appearance. d. Cachexia does not describe an overweight individual. Question 15 5/ 5 points An example of a congenital disease or disorder is: (O cerebral palsy. () hypertension. (O Down syndrome. ® both a and c. w Hide question 15 feedback hitps:// Feedback a. Cerebral palsy is a congenital condition, but more are listed. b. Hypertension is not congenital. c. Down syndrome is a congenital condition, but more are listed. d. Both cerebral palsy and Down syndrome are congenital conditions. Question 16 5/ 5 points All of the following neoplasms are malignant EXCEPT: @ lipoma. O sarcoma. (O carcinoma. (O sglioma. w Hide question 16 feedback Feedback a. A lipoma is a tumor made of fat (adipose) tissue and is not malignant. b. A sarcoma is malignant. c. A carcinoma is malignant. d. A glioma is malignant. Question 17 5/ 5 points Obesity: hitps:// @ shortens one's life. (O lengthens one’'s life. O has no adverse effect on one's life. (O bandc. w Hide question 17 feedback Feedback a. Obesity shortens ones life. b. Obesity does not lengthen one's life. c. Obesity does have an adverse effect on one's life. d. Obesity does not lengthen one's life and does have an adverse effect. Question 18 5/ 5 points General guidelines for a healthy lifestyle include all of the following EXCEPT: maintaining body weight. consuming excessive alcohol. getting enough sleep and rest. O0®O maintaining a moderate exercise schedule. Hide question 18 feedback 4 hitps:// Feedback a. Maintaining body weight at a healthy level is one of the guidelines for a healthy lifestyle. b. Consuming excessive alcohol is not a guideline for a healthy lifestyle. c. Getting enough sleep and rest is one of the guidelines for a healthy lifestyle. d. Maintaining a moderate exercise schedule is a guideline for a healthy lifestyle. Question 19 5/ 5 points Hereditary diseases are classified in which of the following ways? () single gene abnormality O abnormality of several genes abnormality of a chromosome, either the entire absence of a O chromosome or the presence of an additional chromosome O, all of the above w Hide question 19 feedback Feedback a. Single gene abnormality is a possible classification, but there are other classifications. b. Abnormality of several genes is a possible classification, but there are other classifications. c. Abnormality of a chromosome is a possible classification, but there are other classifications. d. Hereditary diseases can be classified under single gene abnormality, abnormality of several genes, or abnormality of a chromosome. Question 20 5/ 5 points hitps:// Congenital means: (O begins in childhood. (O begins at puberty. @ born with. (O begins in middle age. w Hide question 20 feedback Feedback a. Congenital does not mean begins in childhood. b. Congenital does not mean begins at puberty. c. Congenital means born with. d. Congenital does not mean begins in middle age. Done hitps:// Week 2 Quiz - Results X Attempt 1 of 1 Written Nov 15, 2025 10:40 AM - Nov 15, 2025 11:07 AM Attempt Score 95/ 100 -95% Overall Grade (Highest Attempt) 95/ 100-95 % Question 1 O / 5 points When performing a frozen section, pathologists take their time to determine whether the tumor is benign or malignant. O True ® False Question 2 5/ 5 points Combining estrogen and progesterone may increase the risk of cancer. O True ® False w Hide question 2 feedback Feedback The most widely used combination pill, combining estrogen and progesterone, may actually decrease the risk of cancer. Question 3 5/ 5 points Genetic alteration is the basis for the development of hyperplasias. Q True @ False w Hide question 3 feedback Feedback Genetic alteration is the basis for the development of malignant neoplasm or cancer, not hyperplasias. Question 4 5/ 5 points Anemia may be due to decreased white blood cell production as a result of cancer treatment. O True ® False w Hide question 4 feedback Feedback Anemia is a decreased red blood cell count. hitps:// Question 5 5/ 5 points Damage related to smoking and tobacco use is limited to the lungs. O True @ False w Hide question 5 feedback Feedback Smoking damages nearly every organ in the body, is associated with at least 15 different cancers, and accounts for about one-third of all cancer deaths. Smoking and tobacco use leads to approximately 30 percent of all cancers. Cigarette smoking is considered the single most preventable cause of lung cancer, heart disease, and other diseases of the lung. The risk of developing lung cancer is 15 times greater for smokers than nonsmokers. Question 6 5/ 5 points Cancer at the in situ stage cannot be avoided by surgical removal. O True ® False w Hide question 6 feedback Feedback In carcinoma in situ, the atypical cells are Bljust sitting in the epithelial layer of the tissue and have not broken through the basement membrane and invaded the surrounding tissue. Carcinoma in situ commonly occurs in the hitps:// uterine cervix, larynx, and mouth. Cancer can be avoided at this stage by surgical removal of the dysplasia or in situ tumor. Question 7 5/ 5 points When cancer has spread through the bloodstream, often the secondary cancer site is discovered first. ® True O False Question 8 5/ 5 points Cancer treatment includes: surgery chemotherapy radiation @ OO0O all of the above ¥ Hide question 8 feedback Feedback a. Cancer treatment may include surgery, but others are listed. b. Cancer treatment may include chemotherapy, but others are listed. c. Cancer treatment may include radiation, but others are listed. d. Cancer treatment includes surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation. hitps:// Question 9 5/ 5 points Genetic mutation or change may be brought about by: viruses chemicals radiation all of the above @ O OO w Hide question 9 feedback Feedback a. Viruses can cause genetic mutation or change, but other causes are listed. b. Chemicals can cause genetic mutation or change, but other causes are listed. c. Radiation can cause genetic mutation or change, but other causes are listed. d. Viruses, chemicals, and radiation can cause genetic mutation or change. Question 10 5/ 5 points Estrogen is used to treat: Q uterine cancer Q breast cancer O ovarian cancer (® prostate cancer w Hide question 10 feedback Feedback hitps:// a. Estrogen is not used to treat uterine cancer. b. Estrogen is not used to treat breast cancer. c. Estrogen is not used to treat ovarian cancer. d. Cancer of the prostate is stimulated by the male hormone testosterone but slowed or inhibited by estrogen treatment. Question 11 5/ 5 points What kind of surgery for cancer is done to alleviate pain and discomfort when a cure is not possible? curative palliative preventive prophylactic OO ®O w Hide question 11 feedback Feedback a. Curative surgery is aimed at complete removal of the tumor. b. Palliative surgery is usually indicated when cure is not possible, but surgery will alleviate pain and discomfort. c. Preventive surgery may be performed to prevent development of cancer. d. Question 12 5/ 5 points The herpes simplex virus has been closely connected to cancer of the: hitps:// (O ovary ® cervix O liver O lungs w Hide question 12 feedback Feedback a. The link between the herpes simplex virus and ovarian cancer has not been shown. b. Individuals with cervical cancer also tend to have the herpes simplex virus. c. The link between the herpes simplex virus and liver cancer has not been shown. d. The link between the herpes simplex virus and lung cancer has not been shown. Question 13 5/ 5 points People who have had blistering sunburns at a young age are at the greatest risk of developing: sarcoma squamous cell cancer adenocarcinoma melanoma @ O OO W Hide question 13 feedback Feedback a. Blistering sunburns have not been shown to increase the risk of developing sarcoma. b. Blistering sunburns have not been shown to increase the risk of hitps:// developing squamous cell cancer. c. Blistering sunburns have not been shown to increase the risk of developing adenocarcinoma. d. Basal and squamous cell carcinomas tend to occur from cumulative exposure to the sun; melanoma occurs more frequently due to extreme, blistering burns at a young age. Question 14 5/ 5 points Common sites for carcinoma in situ include all of the following EXCEPT the: cervix ovary larynx OO ®O mouth w Hide question 14 feedback Feedback a. Cervix is a common site for carcinoma in situ. b. Ovary is not a common site for carcinoma in situ. Common sites for carcinoma in situ are the cervix, larynx, and mouth c. Larynx is a common site for carcinoma in situ. d. Mouth is a common site for carcinoma in situ. Question 15 5/ 5 points Cheyanne has melanoma and is being treated with interferon to: hitps:// O O, O O Alex Birnbaum - SCIN255 K001 Fall 2025 - APEI prevent nausea and vomiting boost her immune system response halt tumor growth prevent proliferation of cancer cells Question 16 5/ 5 points Jessica has advanced ovarian cancer and fluid is building up in her abdomen. She is hospitalized and radiogold is injected into her abdomen. What piece of knowledge should those caring for her have? O O O O, Care providers should not be concerned about exposure risk because the radiogold is administered by injection. Only women beyond reproductive age should be allowed to care for Jessica. Care providers should wear lead-lined aprons when within five feet of Jessica. Gowns and gloves should be worn when handling patient excreta such as feces, urine, and body secretions. Question 17 5/ 5 points Chanelle has a brain tumor that is causing swelling of her brain. What class of drugs may be used to reduce cerebral edema? O O, O O colony stimulating factors hormones alkylating agents mitotic inhibitors Question 18 5/ 5 points Ziva is in treatment for lymphoma with an antitumor antibioti She will be closely monitored for signs of: @ -cardiotoxicity (O immune system hyperactivity (O peripheral neuropathy (O development of a secondary cancer Question 19 5/ 5 points Bryant has skin cancer and is being treated with a topical antimetabolite, which is most likely to be: (O Vvinorelbine @ fluorouracil (O leucovorin (O cisplatin Question 20 5/ 5 points Arthur does not have cancer, but does have severe rheumatoid arthritis that has not been responsive to treatment. What class of antineoplastic agents might be used to treat his rheumatoid arthritis? monoclonal antibody alkylating agent antimetabolite O® OO0 radioisotope Done hitps:// hitps:// Week 3 Quiz - Results X Attempt 1 of Unlimited Written Nov 22, 2025 11:08 AM - Nov 22, 2025 11:22 AM Attempt Score 100/ 100 - 100 % Overall Grade (Highest Attempt) 100 / 100 - 100 % Question 1 5/ 5 points Viral infections are easily treated. O True ® False w Hide question 1 feedback Feedback Viral infections cannot be treated easily. There are some antiviral agents that can be given to individuals with reduced resistance to infections to try to prevent the viral infection. Antibiotic therapy does not kill a virus. Question 2 5/ 5 points An abscess is generalized accumulation of pus. O True @ False w Hide question 2 feedback Feedback A localized collection of pus is called an abscess. Question 3 5/ 5 points Bacteria become opportunistic when normal flora become pathogenic. @ True O False Question 4 5/ 5 points Secondary union in tissue healing involves wound healing by granulation. @® True O False Question 5 5/ 5 points The body has two basic methods of tissue repair. ® True O False Question 6 5/ 5 points All tapeworms are acquired by eating uncooked or inadequately cooked meat. @ True (O False Question 7 5/ 5 points Candidiasis is commonly known as a yeast infection. ® True O False Question 8 5/ 5 points The smallest infectious organism is a: fungus. virus. bacterium. helminth. O0O®O w Hide question 8 feedback Feedback a. A fungus is not the smallest infectious organism. b. A virus is the smallest infective organism. c. A bacterium is not the smallest infectious organism. d. A helminth is not the smallest infectious organism. Question 9 5/ 5 points The type of infection that accounts for 80 percent of all infections is: childhood. respiratory. viral. wound. OO ®O w Hide question 9 feedback Feedback a. Childhood infections are common but do not account for 80 percent of all infections. b. Respiratory infections, including upper respiratory infections, influenza-like infections, pneumonia, and bronchitis, account for more than 80 percent of all infections. c. Viral infections are common but do not account for 80 percent of all infections. d. Wound infections do not account for 80 percent of all infections. Question 10 5/ 5 points The three basic lines of defense include: an intact skin. the inflammatory response. the immune response. all of the above. @ O 0O w Hide question 10 feedback Feedback a. An intact skin is a basic line of defense, but others are listed. b. The inflammatory response is a basic line of defense, but others are listed. c. The immune response is a basic line of defense, but others are listed. d. An intact skin, the inflammatory response, and the immune response are the three basic lines of defense. Question 11 5/ 5 points What effect do steroids have on the healing process? (O no effect @ inhibits healing (O speeds up healing () speeds up primary union w Hide question 11 feedback Feedback a. Steroids do have an effect on the healing process. b. Steroids inhibit healing. Steroid therapy inhibits the inflammatory response, giving the invading offender the upper hand. c. Steroids do not speed up healing. d. Steroids inhibit healing and thus slow down primary union. Question 12 5/ 5 points The microorganism that typically causes an abscess is: @ Streptococcus. O Kilebsiella. (O E.coli (O Proteus. w Hide question 12 feedback Feedback a. Streptococcus is the microorganism that typically causes an abscess. b. Klebsiella is not the microorganism that typically causes an abscess. c. E. coli is not the microorganism that typically causes an abscess. d. Proteus is not the microorganism that typically causes an abscess. Question 13 5/ 5 points Examples of common viral infections include: herpes simplex. mononucleosis. influenza. @ O0O0 all of the above. 4 Hide question 13 feedback Feedback a. Herpes simplex is a common viral infection, but others are listed. b. Mononucleosis is a common viral infection, but others are listed. c. Influenza is a common viral infection, but others are listed. d. Herpes simplex, mononucleosis, and influenza are all common viral infections. Question 14 5/ 5 points The leading cause of death in the world is: heart disease. accidental death. cancer. ®@ O OO infection. w Hide question 14 feedback Feedback a. Heart disease is not the leading cause of death in the world. b. Accidental deaths are not the leading cause of death in the world. c. Cancer is not the leading cause of death in the world. d. Infections are the leading cause of death in the world. Question 15 5/ 5 points Camille is disturbed when her TB test comes back positive. She has not had any symptoms at all but the doctor explains that she has latent TB. What treatment is indicated for latent TB? (O daily administration of isoniazid (INH) alone for 18-24 months @ daily administration of isoniazid (INH) alone for 6-12 months (O no treatment is needed as long as she is symptom free (O daily administration of rifampin with pyrazinamide for 2 to 4 weeks Question 16 5/ 5 points Your great-grandmother is hospitalized from a broken hip and has become critically ill with a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection. What is the first-line antibiotic for the treatment of MRSA? ® Vvancomycin O ampicillin (O amphotericin B O sulfamethoxazole Question 17 5/ 5 points Vanessa has been successfully treated for sinus infections with quinolones and is somewhat surprised when the pediatrician refuses to prescribe a quinolone for her 11-year-old's sinus infection. The pediatrician explains that the decision was based on a particular adverse effect that occurs in children and adolescents who are given quinolones. To what adverse is the physician referring? severe, permanent psychiatric disorders new-onset learning disabilities cartilage damage O® OO0 accelerated puberty Question 18 5/ 5 points Two-month-old Eugenia has an bacterial upper respiratory infection and needs an antibiotic. The physician assures her worried parents, who have heard about the dangers of antibiotics, that the prescribed antibiotic is considered to be one of the safest and is often recommended for infants. This antibiotic is likely to be in what class? (O cephalosporins (O quinolones @ macrolides () aminoglycosides Question 19 5/ 5 points Life is very difficult for Michael, who is homeless and severely mentally ill. The local health department recently had an outreach program and Michael found out that the cough he attributed to his chain smoking was TB. Given Michael's situation, what approach to drug therapy would probably be best? (O detainment and treatment in a correctional medical facility (O high doses of medication whenever he can be located @ directly observed therapy (O hospitalization on a mental health order and treatment in the hospital Question 20 5/ 5 points Four-year-old Phebian has life-threatening septicemia and the antibiotics that have been tried so far have failed. The doctors propose trying another type of antibiotic, but warn Phebian's parents that there are very serious potential adverse reactions, including nephrotoxicity, which is usually reversible, and ototoxicity, which may be permanent. This antibiotic is likely to be in which class? aminoglycosides penicillins cephalosporins O00® macrolides Done Week 5 Quiz - Results X Attempt 1 of 1 Written Dec 7, 2025 8:59 AM - Dec 7, 2025 9:18 AM Attempt Score 100/ 100 - 100 % Overall Grade (Highest Attempt) 100 / 100 - 100 % Question 1 5/ 5 points The thymus gland is located in the neck. O True ® False w Hide question 1 feedback Feedback The thymus gland is located in the chest behind the sternum. Question 2 5/ 5 points Transfusions of blood from one person to another are a type of tissue transplant. ® True O False Alex Birnbaum - SCIN255 K001 Fall 2025 - APEI Question 3 5/ 5 points B lymphocytes are responsible for humoral immunity. @® True (O False Question 4 5/ 5 points The allergen that causes hay fever is perennial and is transmitted through physical contact. O True O] False w Hide question 4 feedback Feedback The allergen may be seasonal and is usually airborne. Question 5 5/ 5 points Rh-negative mothers with Rh-positive babies always have problems with antigens during their first pregnancy. O True @ False w Hide question 5 feedback Feedback Rh negative mothers pregnant with Rh positive babies usually do not have a problem with the first baby. During the first pregnancy, the motherls blood does not have the opportunity to identify the antigen because there is no exchange of blood cells or antigens. Question 6 5/ 5 points Initially, myasthenia gravis affects the facial muscles. @ True O False Question 7 5/ 5 points Myasthenia gravis is a disease that affects the transmission of nerve signals at the neuromuscular junction to muscle. @ True O False Question 8 5/ 5 points Trauma to the immune system is generally limited to treatments or medications that suppress the system. @ True O False Question 9 5/ 5 points Delayed response allergies are the most harmful type of hypersensitivity. O True @ False w Hide question 9 feedback Feedback Delayed response allergies are slower to react and are usually less harmful. Question 10 5/ 5 points The four types of leukocytes are polymorphonuclear leukocytes, monocytes, macrophages, and lymphocytes. ® True O False Question 11 5/ 5 points A life-threatening anaphylactic reaction may be treated with: (@ a tracheostomy. (O antibiotics. (O antihypertensives. (O decongestants. w Hide question 11 feedback Feedback a. A tracheostomy may be performed to reestablish an airway that has been swollen shut. b. Antibiotics are not a treatment for life-threatening anaphylactic shock. c. Antihypertensives are not a treatment for lifethreatening anaphylactic shock. d. Decongestants are not a treatment for lifethreatening anaphylactic shock. Question 12 5/ 5 points Respiratory symptoms of allergic reactions include: sneezing. wheezing. runny nose. @ O OO all of the above. w Hide question 12 feedback Feedback a. Sneezing can be a respiratory symptom of allergic reactions, but others are listed. b. Wheezing can be a respiratory symptom of allergic reactions, but others are listed. c. A runny nose can be a respiratory symptom of allergic reactions, but others are listed. d. Sneezing, wheezing, and a runny nose can be respiratory symptoms of allergic reactions. Question 13 5/ 5 points Symptoms of food allergies may include: cramping. hair loss. constipation. O00® elevated temperature w Hide question 13 feedback Feedback a. Cramping may occur as a result of food allergies. b. Hair loss is not a symptom of food allergies. c. Constipation is not a symptom of food allergies. d. Elevated temperature is not a symptom of food allergies. Question 14 5/ 5 points Treatment of hay fever includes: antihistamines. antibiotics. bronchodilators. O00® cough suppressants. w Hide question 14 feedback Feedback a. Antihistamines are a possible treatment for hay fever. b. Antibiotics are not effective in treating hay fever. c. Bronchodilators are not used to treat hay fever. d. Cough suppressants are not used to treat hay fever. Question 15 5/ 5 points Triggers of nonallergic asthma include: stress. changes in temperature. exercise. all of the above. @ O OO w Hide question 15 feedback Feedback a. Stress can trigger a nonallergic asthma attack, but other triggers are listed. b. Changes in temperature can trigger a nonallergic asthma attack, but other triggers are listed. c. Exercise can trigger a nonallergic asthma attack, but other triggers are listed. d. Stress, changes in temperature, and exercise can trigger a nonallergic asthma attack. Question 16 5/ 5 points Individuals who are suspected of having rheumatoid arthritis may have which of the following to confirm the diagnosis? O VA O CPK @ RF O ANA w Hide question 16 feedback Feedback a. UA stands for urinalysis and is not diagnostic of rheumatoid arthritis. b. CPK is a blood enzyme, and the CPK test is not diagnostic of rheumatoid arthritis. c. Presence of the antibody called rheumatoid factor (RF) in the affected individual®s blood is indicative of the disease. d. ANA stands for antinuclear antibody, and its presence may indicate an autoimmune problem. But the ANA test is not diagnostic of rheumatoid arthritis. Question 17 5/ 5 points Hay fever is a seasonal allergic reaction that may be caused by: (O medications. @ ragweed pollen. (O food. (O laundry detergent. w Hide question 17 feedback Feedback a. Medications do not cause seasonal hay fever. b. Ragweed pollen may cause seasonal allergic reactions called hay fever. c. In addition to house dust and pet dander, food allergies may cause nonseasonal hay fever. d. Laundry detergent does not cause seasonal hay fever. Question 18 5/ 5 points Nonseasonal allergies may be a result of: @ food allergies. (O srass pollen. (O tree pollen. (O ragweed pollen. w Hide question 18 feedback Feedback a. Food allergies are a nonseasonal allergen. b. Grass pollen is a seasonal allergen. c. Tree pollen is a seasonal allergen. d. Ragweed pollen is a seasonal allergen. Question 19 5/ 5 points Treatment of asthma includes all of the following EXCEPT: desensitization. sensitization. avoidance of causative allergens. O0®O medication. w Hide question 19 feedback Feedback a. Desensitization is a possible treatment for asthma. b. Sensitization is not a treatment for asthma. c. Avoidance of causative allergens is a possible treatment for asthma. d. Medication is a possible treatment for asthma. Question 20 5/ 5 points Having measles or mumps is an example of: @ active natural immunity. (O active artificial immunity. (O passive natural immunity. (O passive artificial immunity. w Hide question 20 feedback Feedback a. An example of active natural immunity is having the disease, such as measles or mumps. b. An example of active artificial immunity is receiving the vaccination. c. An example of passive natural immunity is the antibodies received from maternal-fetus transmission. d. An example of passive artificial immunity is the injection of antibodies. Done Week 6 Quiz - Results X Attempt 1 of 1 Written Dec 13, 2025 1:54 PM - Dec 13, 2025 2:05 PM Attempt Score 100/ 100 - 100 % Overall Grade (Highest Attempt) 100 / 100 - 100 % Question 1 5/ 5 points Mineralization of bones causes their characteristic hardness. @® True O False Question 2 5/ 5 points Females diagnosed with scoliosis usually have a more severe spinal curvature than males who are diagnosed with scoliosis. ® True O False Question 3 5/ 5 points Osteoporosis causes a Swiss cheese appearance to bone. ® True O False Question 4 5/ 5 points A nondisplaced fracture is a fracture out of alignment. O True @ False w Hide question 4 feedback Feedback Many fractures are easy to recognize due to the obvious displacement and related deformity. Nondisplaced (not out of place or position) fractures are not as easy to recognize, but may cause pain just the same. Question 5 5/ 5 points As osteoporosis progresses, the individual has an increased risk of fracturing his or her hip. ® True O False Question 6 5/ 5 points Osteomalacia is hardening of the bone. O True ® False w Hide question 6 feedback Feedback Osteomalacia is the general term for the softening of the bones in adults; in children it is called rickets. Question 7 5/ 5 points Osteoarthritis is wearing out of a joint. @ True (O False Question 8 5/ 5 points Different shapes of bones include: irregular. flat. long. ®@ O 0O all of the above. w Hide question 8 feedback Feedback a. An irregular bone is a bone shape, such as vertebrae or pelvic bones, but more shapes are listed. b. A flat bone is a bone shape, such as the sternum or skull bones, but more shapes are listed. c. A long bone is a bone shape, such as the femur in the leg, but more shapes are listed. d. Irregular, flat, and long are different shapes of bones in the body. Question 9 5/ 5 points Bone-building cells are called: osteoblasts. osteoclasts. osteocytes. OO0 O0® osteitis. w Hide question 9 feedback Feedback a. Osteoblasts are active bone-building cells. b. Osteoclasts are cells that reabsorb bone. c. Osteocytes are mature bone cells. d. Pagetls (pronounced paj-ets) disease, also known as osteitis deformans, is a chronic metabolic bone disease that affects bone formation. Question 10 5/ 5 points A vertebra is an example of a(n) bone. O flat O long (O short @ irregular w Hide question 10 feedback Feedback a. A vertebra is not an example of a flat bone. b. A vertebra is not an example of a long bone. c. A vertebra is not an example of a short bone. d. A vertebra is an example of an irregular bone. Question 11 5/ 5 points Treatment for osteoarthritis includes: running 5 miles a day. heat treatment. cold. taking Tylenol. OO ®O w Hide question 11 feedback Feedback a. Treatment for osteoarthritis includes non-weight-bearing exercises like swimming and biking. b. Treatment for osteoarthritis includes rest, nonweight-bearing exercises like swimming and biking, heat treatment, and use of analgesics and anti-inflammatory medications. c. Treatment for osteoarthritis includes heat treatment, not cold. d. Treatment for osteoarthritis includes use of analgesics and anti-inflammatory medications. Tylenol does not have these actions. Question 12 5/ 5 points All of these are risk factors for developing osteoporosis EXCEPT: @ males who are less than 50 years of age. (O lack of exercise. O females. (O a family history of osteoporosis. w Hide question 12 feedback Feedback a. Males under 50 years of age are not considered a risk factor for developing osteoporosis. b. Lack of exercise is a risk factor for developing osteoporosis. c. Females have a risk factor for developing osteoporosis. d. A family history of osteoporosis is a risk factor for developing osteoporosis. Question 13 5/ 5 points Symptoms of osteomyelitis include all of the following EXCEPT: @ leukopenia. (O high fever. O tenderness over the affected bone. O bacteremia. w Hide question 13 feedback Feedback a. Leukocytosis, not leukopenia, is a symptom of osteomyelitis. b. High fever is a symptom of osteomyelitis. c. Tenderness over the affected bone is a symptom of osteomyelitis. d. Bacteremia (bacteria in the blood) is a symptom of osteomyelitis. Question 14 5/ 5 points Mature bone cells are called: () osteoblasts. (O osteitis. (@ osteocytes. O osteoclasts. w Hide question 14 feedback Feedback a. Osteoblasts are active bone-building cells. b. Pagetllls (pronounced paj-ets) disease, also known as osteitis deformans, is a chronic metabolic bone disease that affects bone formation. c. Osteocytes are mature bone cells. d. Osteoclasts are cells that reabsorb bone. Question 15 5/ 5 points Ellis is having surgery and a neuromuscular blocking agent has been administered. What else must also be administered? O O O, O Alex Birnbaum - SCIN255 K001 Fall 2025 - APEI an antihypertensive a loading dose of glucose analgesics and sedatives anticonvulsants Question 16 5/ 5 points Just as Kendall is experiencing relief from painful muscle spasms with methocarbamol, her spring allergies hit full force and she cannot stop sneezing. Should this be of additional concern? O O O, O Possibly, but only if she takes way too much of the antihistamines. No, not if she takes both medications at least 30 minutes apart. Yes, because the effects of muscle relaxants can be potentiated by antihistamines. No, because over-the-counter antihistamines are very safe. Question 17 5/ 5 points Lincoln has rheumatoid arthritis and a history of gastrointestinal bleeds. What characteristic of COX-2 inhibitors is important for Lincoln? O ® O O COX-2 inhibitors increase production of the prostaglandin that is good for the heart. COX-2 inhibitors decrease production of the prostaglandin that is good for the heart, but not the one that is harmful. COX-2 inhibitors increase production of the prostaglandin that is harmful for the heart, but not the one that is beneficial. COX-2 inhibitors decrease production of the prostaglandins that are good and bad for the heart. Question 18 5/ 5 points Marianne, 62 years of age, is discussing osteoporosis prevention with her doctor, with concerns about the action of estrogen replacement on breast and uterine tissue. Marianne might be interested in selective estrogen-receptor modifiers (SERMs) because they have an estrogen: @ antagonist effect on breast and uterine tissue (O antagonist effect throughout the body (O agonist effect on breast and uterine tissue (O asgonist effect throughout the body Question 19 5/ 5 points Carla, 67 years of age, has a history of breast cancer and thromboembolic disorders, and cannot take hormone replacement or selective estrogenreceptor modifier therapy to treat her osteoporosis. What hormonal agent might be effective? O raloxifene @ calcitonin-salmon Q risedronate O alendronate Question 20 5/ 5 points Alice has experienced a number of fractures due to Paget's disease of the bone. What agent is indicated for treatment of this disease? @ risedronate (O calcitonin-salmon (O raloxifene () teriparatide ANSW Done Week 9 Quiz - Results X Attempt 1 of 1 Written Jan 1, 2026 10:22 AM - Jan 1, 2026 10:32 AM Attempt Score 100/ 100 - 100 % Overall Grade (Highest Attempt) 100 / 100 - 100 % Question 1 5/ 5 points Most respiratory illnesses are viral and not life threatening. @® True O False Question 2 5/ 5 points COPD is always caused by cigarette smoking. Q True ® False w Hide question 2 feedback Feedback 90 percent of the time, COPD is caused due to cigarette smoking. Other causes of COPD include air pollution and chronic respiratory infections. Exposure to certain industrial pollutants can also increase the risk of developing COPD. Question 3 5/ 5 points Sinusitis may lead to infections such as encephalitis if aggressive treatment is not initiated. @ True O False Question 4 5/ 5 points Chronic bronchitis may also be called smoker's cough. ® True O False Question 5 5/ 5 points Prevention of pleurisy includes maintaining a healthy lifestyle and avoiding respiratory allergens. ® True O False Question 6 5/ 5 points Clubbing manifests itself as soft-tissue enlargement and abnormal curvature of the nails. ® True O False Question 7 5/ 5 points The two most common diseases of COPD are chronic bronchitis and asthma. O True @ False w Hide question 7 feedback Feedback The two most common diseases of COPD are chronic bronchitis and emphysema. Question 8 5/ 5 points Common signs and symptoms of asthma include: (O wheezing. O fever. (O dyspnea. @ aandc. w Hide question 8 feedback Feedback a. Wheezing is a common signs and symptoms of asthma, but more signs and symptoms are listed. b. Fever is not a common sign and symptom of asthma. c. Dyspnea is a common signs and symptoms of asthma, but more signs and symptoms are listed. d. Wheezing and dyspnea are common signs and symptoms of asthma. Question 9 5/ 5 points General treatment for viral infections includes: rest. decreased fluids. antibiotics. bronchodilators. OO0O0® w Hide question 9 feedback Feedback a. A general treatment for viral infections includes resting, drinking increased amounts of fluids, and taking antipyretics and analgesics. b. Increasing, not decreasing, fluid intake would be recommended. c. Antibiotics are not effective against viral infections, but may be needed for secondary bacterial infection. d. Bronchodilators are not a general treatment for viral infections. Question 10 5/ 5 points Treatment of bronchitis includes: analgesics. increased fluid intake. cough syrup. all of the above. @ O 0O w Hide question 10 feedback Feedback a. Analgesics may be used to treat bronchitis, but other treatments are listed. b. Increased fluid intake may be used to treat bronchitis, but other treatments are listed. c. Cough syrup may be used to treat bronchitis, but other treatments are listed. d. Analgesics, increased fluids, and cough syrup all may be used to treat bronchitis. Question 11 5/ 5 points Nasal discharge is frequently seen in: (O infection. (O inflammation. (O allergic respiratory reactions. ® all of the above. W Hide question 11 feedback Feedback a. Nasal discharge is frequently seen in infection, but other possible conditions are listed. b. Nasal discharge is frequently seen in inflammation, but other possible conditions are listed. c. Nasal discharge is frequently seen in allergic respiratory reactions, but other possible conditions are listed. d. Nasal discharge is frequency seen in infection, inflammation, and allergic respiratory reactions. Question 12 5/ 5 points Characteristics of influenza include all of the following EXCEPT: (O back and muscle pain. O fever and chills. ® headaches and rhinorrhea. () runny nose and sneezing. w Hide question 12 feedback Feedback a. Back and muscle pain is characteristic of influenza. b. Fever and chills is characteristic of influenza. c. Headaches and rhinorrhea is not characteristic of influenza. d. Runny nose and sneezing is characteristic of influenza. Question 13 5/ 5 points Pneumonia may be caused by: Q tuberculosis. O Pneumococcus. (O Haemophilus influenzae. ® a and b. w Hide question 13 feedback Feedback a. Tuberculosis may cause pneumonia, but another cause is listed. b. Pneumococcus may cause pneumonia, but another cause is listed. c. Haemophilus influenzae does not cause pneumonia. d. Both tuberculosis and Pneumococcus may cause pneumonia. Question 14 5/ 5 points The upper respiratory system includes all of the following EXCEPT the: (O nose. @ lungs. (O pharynx. O larynx. w Hide question 14 feedback Feedback a. The nose is part of the upper respiratory system. b. The upper respiratory system includes the nose (nasal cavities), mouth, sinuses, pharynx, and larynx. c. The pharynx is part of the upper respiratory system. d. The larynx is part of the upper respiratory system. Question 15 5/ 5 points Sapphire has rhinitis and has been prescribed an intranasal corticosteroid. What is important for her to know about its use? (O The medication will relieve congestion but not inflammation. (O The medication should be used only when symptoms occur. @ The medication should be started before symptoms occur. The medication should be used only after rinsing the mouth with O mouthwash to avoid fungal infections. Question 16 5/ 5 points Sally is taking an oral smoking cessation aid that is a partial nicotine receptor agonist-antagonist. What medication is she taking? O desloratadine () oxymetazoline @ varenicline () bupropion Question 17 5/ 5 points Sixteen-year-old Elyza has asthma and has been using her rescue inhaler more frequently. What does this indicate? (O She is overusing her medications and is at risk of an overdose. (O She is outgrowing her asthma. @ Her asthma control is deteriorating. (O She is having a paradoxical reaction to her medications. Question 18 5/ 5 points Clay has COPD and is not responsive to inhaled bronchodilators. What medication might be used? (O cromolyn (O montelukast @ theophylline (O formoterol Question 19 5/ 5 points Short-acting beta agonists are: O antihistamines O maintenance medications O antitussives @ rescue medications Question 20 5/ 5 points Bartholomew has a cold with a cough and runny nose. He has an antihistamine that worked wonderfully with his spring allergies. Should he use this for his cold? Possibly, but only if he takes it with an antitussive as well. Yes, especially if he has COPD or asthma. Yes. Taking this is a good idea to help him be more comfortable. No. The thickening of bronchial secretions may result in further airway @ OO0O obstruction. Done Week 11 Quiz - Results X Attempt 1 of 1 Written Jan 14, 2026 7:44 PM - Jan 14, 2026 7:52 PM Attempt Score 95/ 100-95% Overall Grade (Highest Attempt) 95/ 100-95 % Question 1 5/ 5 points Uremia will not develop in the late stages of glomerulonephritis. O True ® False w Hide question 1 feedback Feedback Uremia and kidney failure may develop in the late stages of glomerulonephritis. Question 2 5/ 5 points Less than 100,000 bacteria per milliliter or cubic centimeter of urine is a positive indicator of a urinary tract infection. O True ® False w Hide question 2 feedback Feedback Greater than 100,000 bacteria per milliliter or cubic centimeter of urine is a positive indicator of a urinary tract infection. Question 3 5/ 5 points After completing treatment for cystitis, it is important to get a follow-up urine culture and sensitivity tests. @ True O False Question 4 5/ 5 points The accumulation of fluid in the renal pelvis causes a condition known as hydronephrosis. @ True O False Question 5 5/ 5 points A urinalysis is performed to check the urine for pH, specific gravity, blood, protein, and sugar. ® True O False Alex Birnbaum - SCIN255 K001 Fall 2025 - APEI Question 6 5/ 5 points A cystoscopy is an invasive procedure. @® True (O False Question 7 5/ 5 points Neurogenic bladder is frequently not preventable. @ True O False Question 8 5/ 5 points Signs and symptoms of urethritis include all of the following EXCEPT: (O urethral discharge. (O swelling of the urethra. () dysuria. @ all of the above. W Hide question 8 feedback Feedback a. Urethral discharge is a symptom of urethritis, but other signs and symptoms are listed. b. Swelling of the urethra is a symptom of urethritis, but other signs and symptoms are listed. c. Dysuria is a symptom of urethritis, but other signs and symptoms are listed. d. Urethral discharge, swelling of the urethra, and dysuria are all signs and symptoms of urethritis. Question 9 5/ 5 points A neurogenic bladder may be caused by: O a stroke. Q a tumor. (O aspinal cord accident. ® all of the above. w Hide question 9 feedback Feedback a. A stroke may result in a neurogenic bladder, but other causes are listed. b. A tumor may cause a neurogenic bladder, but other causes are listed. c. A spinal cord accident may cause a neurogenic bladder, but other causes are listed. d. A stroke, tumor, or spinal cord accident can all cause a neurogenic bladder. Question 10 5/ 5 points Catheterization is performed to: remove urine. obtain a sterile urine specimen. treat incontinence. accomplish all of the above. @ O 0O w Hide question 10 feedback Feedback a. To remove urine is a reason to perform a catheterization, but other reasons are listed. b. To obtain a sterile urine specimen is a reason to perform a catheterization, but other reasons are listed. c. To treat incontinence is a reason to perform a catheterization, but other reasons are listed. d. To remove urine, obtain a sterile urine specimen, and treat incontinence are all reasons to perform catheterization. Question 11 5/ 5 points Urinary tract infections may be caused by: (O bacterium. O a virus. (O afungus. ® all of the above. W Hide question 11 feedback Feedback a. Bacteria may cause a urinary tract infection, but other cautions agents are listed. b. Virus may cause a urinary tract infection, but other cautions agents are listed. c. Fungus may cause a urinary tract infection, but other cautions agents are listed. d. Bacteria, viruses, and fungi all can cause urinary tract infections. Question 12 5/ 5 points Diagnosis of hydronephrosis is confirmed by IVP. pyelogram. cystogram. OO ®O cystoscopy. w Hide question 12 feedback Feedback a. IVP is not diagnostic of hydronephrosis. b. A pyelogram is diagnostic of hydronephrosis. c. Cystogram is not diagnostic of hydronephrosis. d. Cystoscopy is not diagnhostic of hydronephrosis. Question 13 5/ 5 points Prevention of UTls include all of the following EXCEPT: (O drink six to eight glasses of water per day. (O wipe from front to back. @ wear tight-fitting clothes. O urinate before and after sexual intercourse. ¥ Hide question 13 feedback Feedback a. Drinking six to eight glasses of water per day will help prevent UTls. b. Wiping from front to back will help prevent UTls. c. Wearing tight-fitting clothes will contribute to the development of a UTI, not prevent it. d. Urinating before and after sexual intercourse will help prevent UTls. Question 14 5/ 5 points Treatment for glomerulonephritis includes: O increased salt intake. O forced fluids. @ diuretics. (O increased protein in the diet. w Hide question 14 feedback Feedback a. Increased salt intake is not a treatment for glomerulonephritis. b. Forced fluids is not a treatment for glomerulonephritis. c. Diuretics is a treatment for glomerulonephritis. d. Increased protein in the diet is not a treatment for glomerulonephritis. Question 15 5/ 5 points Burt is taking an alpha blocker to treat his benign prostatic hyperplasia. How will the alpha blocker act? (O By killing abnormal prostate cells and preventing further prostate growth (O By causing prostatic atrophy By relaxing smooth muscles in the bladder neck and prostate, improving O urinary flow (O By decreasing the rate of prostatic growth Question 16 5/ 5 points Magdalena is prescribed a diuretic to help prevent the formation of stones associated with hypercalciuri (O What type of diuretic is most effective for this purpose? a. loop (O diuretic @ thiazide () potassium-sparing Question 17 5/ 5 points A diuretic is prescribed for Kevin, and he is counseled about the risk of taking salicylates concurrently. What diuretic is known to increase the risk of salicylate toxicity? () triamterene @ furosemide (O mannitol (O hydrochlorothiazide Question 18 5/ 5 points Earl has chronic gout and takes probenecid, a uricosuric agent. How do uricosuric agents act? (O By reducing both pain and inflammation @ By promoting urinary excretion of uric acid (O By increasing formation of uric acid (O By reducing inflammation Question 19 5/ 5 points Parker is having an acute gout attack and is in pain. If he starts soon after symptoms begin, what should provide him with effective pain control? (O a heating pad set to as high a level as he can withstand @ NSAIDs (O low-dose opiates () rest, ice, compression, and elevation Question 20 O / 5 points Erin has cirrhosis. What diuretic is often recommended for patients with cirrhosis? metolazone spironolactone mannitol O O ®O bumetanide Done Week 13 Quiz - Results X Attempt 1 of 1 Written Jan 26, 2026 4:47 PM - Jan 26, 2026 5:00 PM Attempt Score 100/ 100 - 100 % Overall Grade (Highest Attempt) 100 / 100 - 100 % Question 1 5/ 5 points At least one-half of one parathyroid gland is necessary to maintain normal parathormone levels. ® True O False Question 2 5/ 5 points Androgenital syndrome is preventable. O True ® False w Hide question 2 feedback Feedback Since androgenital syndrome is a hereditary disease, it is not preventable. Question 3 5/ 5 points Prognosis for hyperparathyroidism is poor even with advanced treatment. O True ® False w Hide question 3 feedback Feedback Prognosis or hyperparathyroidism is generally good with adequate treatment. Question 4 5/ 5 points Myxedema is hypothyroidism in children. O True ® False W Hide question 4 feedback Feedback Myxedema is advanced hypothyroidism in adults. Congenital hypothyroidism is called cretinism. Question 5 5/ 5 points Thyroid storm may occur during the immediate postoperative period following a thyroidectomy. @ True O False Question 6 5/ 5 points Prognosis of giantism is usually poor. O True ® False W Hide question 6 feedback Feedback Prognosis of giantism is usually good. Question 7 5/ 5 points Most cases of hypothyroidism in the United States can be prevented. O True ® False w Hide question 7 feedback Feedback Most cases of hypothyroidism in the United States are caused by HashimotolZs thyroiditis and cannot be prevented. Question 8 5/ 5 points Congenital hypothyroidism is also known as: cretinism. colitis. myxedema. O00O® melanoma. w Hide question 8 feedback Feedback a. Congenital hypothyroidism is also known as cretinism. b. Colitis is not another name for congenital hypothyroidism. c. Myxedema is not another name for congenital hypothyroidism. d. Melanoma is not another name for congenital hypothyroidism. Question 9 5/ 5 points Symptoms of hypothyroidism include all of the following EXCEPT: thin nails. weight loss. brittle hair. O0O®O weight gain. w Hide question 9 feedback Feedback a. Thin nails is a symptom of hypothyroidism. b. Weight loss is not a symptom of hypothyroidism. c. Brittle hair is a symptom of hypothyroidism. d. Weight gain is a symptom of hypothyroidism. Question 10 5/ 5 points The parathyroid glands are located on the posterior side of the: thyroid gland. pineal gland. thymus gland. O00® pituitary gland. 4 Hide question 10 feedback Feedback a. The parathyroid glands are located on the posterior side of the thyroid glands. b. The parathyroid glands are not located on the posterior side of the pineal gland. c. The parathyroid glands are not located on the posterior side of the thymus gland. d. The parathyroid glands are not located on the posterior side of the pituitary gland. Question 11 5/ 5 points The pancreas is: (O an exocrine gland. (O an endocrine gland. (O a pituitary gland. @ aandb. w Hide question 11 feedback Feedback a. The pancreas is an exocrine gland, but it also has another function. b. The pancreas is an endocrine gland, but it also has another function. c. The pancreas and pituitary gland are different. d. The pancreas is both an exocrine and an endocrine gland. Question 12 5/ 5 points Complications of acromegaly include: congestive heart failure. cystitis. cirrhosis. diabetes. O00® w Hide question 12 feedback Feedback a. A complication of acromegaly can be congestive heart failure. b. Cystitis is not a complication of acromegaly. c. Cirrhosis is not a complication of acromegaly. d. Diabetes is not a complication of acromegaly. Question 13 5/ 5 points The pancreatic islets produce: thyroxine. insulin. epinephrine. O0®O parathormone. w Hide question 13 feedback Feedback a. The pancreatic islets do not produce thyroxine. b. The pancreatic islets produce insulin. c. The pancreatic islets do not produce epinephrine. d. The pancreatic islets do not produce parathormone. Question 14 5/ 5 points A simple goiter is: () adecrease in the size of the thyroid. @® anincrease in the size of the thyroid. (O no change in the size of the thyroid. () none of the above. w Hide question 14 feedback Feedback a. A simple goiter is not a decrease in the size of the thyroid. b. A simple goiter is an increase in the size of the thyroid. c. A simple goiter does impact the size of the thyroid. d. A simple goiter is an increase in the size of the thyroid, not a decrease or no change in the size of the thyroid. Question 15 5/ 5 points In the United States, 70% of diabetics die from: (O profound hypoglycemia (O cancer associated with oral antidiabetic agents @ heart attack or stroke () neuropathy Question 16 5/ 5 points Freya takes glipizide for Type 2 diabetes. To what class does this drug belong? @ sulfonylureas (O incretins (O alpha-glucosidase inhibitors (O meglitinides Question 17 5/ 5 points Jimmy has Type 1 diabetes. What macrovascular complications might he experience? () neuropathy (O nephropathy () retinopathy @ stroke Question 18 5/ 5 points In her diabetes education class, Vickie learned that when insulin is injected into the arms or thighs: () it can reduce the amount needed (O itis more consistently absorbed (O itisless likely to cause hypoglycemia @ itis more rapidly absorbed Question 19 5/ 5 points Your friend Kaylin has been diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes and you take part in her diabetes education classes to learn more. What symptoms might indicate that Kaylin is hyperglycemic? hitps:// (O ravenous appetite (O tachycardia (O decreased urine production @ fruity breath Question 20 5/ 5 points Maddy has Type 1 diabetes. What microvascular complications might she experience? (O peripheral vascular disease (O heart attack @ retinopathy () stroke Done Week 14 Quiz - Results X Attempt 1 of 1 Written Feb 6, 2026 4:46 PM - Feb 6, 2026 5:04 PM Attempt Score 95/ 100 -95% Overall Grade (Highest Attempt) 95/ 100-95 % Question 1 5/ 5 points Diagnosis of placenta previa is done by pelvic ultrasound. @® True O False Question 2 5/ 5 points The myometrium of the uterus is sloughed off during menstruation. Q True ® False w Hide question 2 feedback Feedback hitps:// The inner layer of the uterus is the endometrium. During menstruation, part of this layer is sloughed off and passed through the vagina and vaginal orifice. Question 3 O / 5 points Symptoms of premenstrual syndrome usually start at the beginning of the menstrual cycle. ® True O False W Hide question 3 feedback Feedback Premenstrual syndrome, commonly called PMS, is a group of symptoms occurring prior to the onset of menses. Question 4 5/ 5 points Digital rectal examinations allow the physician to feel the testes. O True ® False w Hide question 4 feedback hitps:// Feedback The testes are palpated to determine the presence of tumors. A digital rectal examination allows the physician to feel the prostate for abnormal enlargement (hypertrophy or hyperplasia) and tumors. Question 5 5/ 5 points Toxic shock syndrome is preventable. ® True O False Question 6 5/ 5 points Ova are the female reproductive cells. @ True O False Question 7 5/ 5 points Cessation of the menstrual cycle is called menopause. ® True O False Question 8 5/ 5 points Female breasts consist of tissue. hitps:// (O adipose () striated (O slandular @® aandc w Hide question 8 feedback Feedback a. Female breasts consist of adipose tissue, but another tissue is listed. b. Female breasts do not have striated muscles. c. Female breasts consist of glandular tissue, but another tissue is listed. d. Females breasts consist of three types of tissue: adipose, fibrous, and glandular tissues. Question 9 5/ 5 points The testes: Q secrete testosterone. (O produce ova. (O produce sperm. @ performaand c. W Hide question 9 feedback Feedback a. The testes secrete testosterone, but another function is listed. b. The female produces ova, not the male. c. The testes produce sperm, but another function is listed. d. The testes secrete testosterone (the male sex hormone) and produce sperm (the reproductive cells). Question 10 5/ 5 points Common signs and symptoms of the male reproductive tract include: lesions on the external genitalia. abnormal penile discharge. swelling or abnormal enlargement of the reproductive organs. all of the above. ®@ O OO Hide question 10 feedback 4 hitps:// Feedback a. Common signs and symptoms of the male reproductive tract include lesions on the external genitalia, but other signs and symptoms are listed. b. Common signs and symptoms of the male reproductive tract include abnormal penile discharge, but other signs and symptoms are listed. c. Common signs and symptoms of the male reproductive tract include swelling or abnormal enlargement of the reproductive organs, but other signs and symptoms are listed. d. Common signs and symptoms of the male reproductive tract include urinary disorders including frequency, dysuria, nocturia, and incontinence; pain in the pelvis, groin, or reproductive organs; lesions on the external genitalia; swelling or abnormal enlargement of the reproductive organs; abnormal penile drainage; and burning or itching of the genitals. Question 11 5/ 5 points Ultrasounds are performed on the pelvis to determine: the presence of tumors. pregnancy. the size and position of organs. all of the above. @ O OO w Hide question 11 feedback Feedback a. Ultrasounds are performed on the pelvis to determine the presence of tumors, but other reasons are listed. b. Ultrasounds are performed on the pelvis to determine pregnancy, but other reasons are listed. c. Ultrasounds are performed on the pelvis to determine the size and position of organs, but other reasons are listed. d. Ultrasounds are performed on the pelvis to hitps:// determine the presence of tumors, pregnancy, and the size and position of organs. Question 12 5/ 5 points Causes of menorrhagia include all of the following EXCEPT: uterine tumors. PID. cervical stenosis. hormone imbalance. O® OO0 w Hide question 12 feedback Feedback a. Uterine tumors may cause menorrhagia. b. PID may cause menorrhagia. c. Cervical stenosis does not cause menorrhagia. Menorrhagia is excessive or prolonged menstrual flow. d. Hormone imbalance may cause menorrhagia. Question 13 5/ 5 points The menstrual cycle is: (O the process of secretion of hormones. (O the preparation of the endometrium for implantation. (O the sloughing layer with bleeding from torn capillaries. ® all of the above. hitps:// w Hide question 13 feedback Feedback a. The process of secretion of hormones is part of the menstrual cycle, but other functions are listed. b. The preparation of the endometrium for the implantation of the fertilized egg is part of the menstrual cycle, but other functions are listed. c. The sloughing layer with bleeding from torn capillaries is part of the menstrual cycle, but other functions are listed. d. The menstrual cycle is the process of secretion of hormones, the preparation of the endometrium for the implantation of the fertilized egg, and if the egg is not implanted, the sloughing of the layer with bleeding from torn capillaries. Question 14 5/ 5 points Common laboratory tests to determine reproductive diseases include: RPR and VDRL. culture and sensitivity. estrogen and progesterone tests. all of the above. @ O 0O W Hide question 14 feedback Feedback a. RPR and VDRL tests are common laboratory tests that are diagnostic of reproductive diseases, but other tests are listed. b. Urine culture and sensitivity test are common laboratory tests that are diagnostic of reproductive diseases, but other tests are listed. c. Estrogen and progesterone tests are common laboratory tests diagnostic of reproductive diseases, but other tests are listed. d. RPR and VDRL tests, urine culture and sensitivity hitps:// test, and estrogen and progesterone tests are all common laboratory tests diagnostic of reproductive diseases. Question 15 5/ 5 points Sarah is breastfeeding her newborn son, and at her six-week check up, asks her obstetrician about birth control. What type of oral contraceptive can safely be used by women who are breastfeeding? (O continuous cycle () biphasic @ progestin only () monophasic Question 16 5/ 5 points In males, follicle stimulating hormone: @ stimulates sperm production O has no effect () stimulates breast growth O shrinks the testes Question 17 5/ 5 points Vinnie is a convicted sex offender who has decided to attempt management of his sexual urges pharmacologically. What hormonal medication might be helpful to him? (O Mesgace @ Depo-Provera (O Striant (O Danocrine Question 18 5/ 5 points Madeleine's baby is one week past her due date and labor is going to be induced. What medication will likely be used? (O terbutaline (O mifepristone () magnesium sulfate @ oxytocin Question 19 5/ 5 points Secretion of breast milk is stimulated by: O FSH O LH O TSH @® LTH Question 20 5/ 5 points Abigail just started taking oral contraceptives. How long should she use backup contraception? hitps:// O 1week (O 3weeks @ 4 weeks O 2 weeks Done hitps://