PN HESI EXIT EXAM V1 NEWEST 2026
ACTUAL EXAM| ELSEVIER HESI PN
EXIT EXAM V1 WITH COMPLETE 150
REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS/
ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST
RECENT!!)
PN HESI EXIT EXAM V1 - PRACTICE TEST
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1. A practical nurse (PN) is reinforcing teaching to a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus abo
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ut preventing hypoglycemia during exercise. Which statement by the client indicates a nee
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d for further teaching?
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A. "I should check my blood glucose level before exercising."
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B. "I should eat a snack if my blood glucose is below 100 mg/dL."
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C. "I should inject my insulin into my thigh before I go for a run."
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D. "I should wear a medical identification bracelet."
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Correct Answer: C jh jh
Rationale: Insulin absorption is increased with exercise, especially when injected into an extremity
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that will be used during the activity (like the thigh for running). This can lead to hypoglycemia. The
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client should inject insulin into the abdomen for more consistent absorption. Options A, B, and D
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are correct actions for preventing hypoglycemia during exercise.
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2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding is
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most important for the PN to report to the registered nurse (RN) immediately?
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A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours.
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B. Serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L.
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C. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg.
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D. Urine output of 120 mL in 4 hours.
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Correct Answer: B jh jh
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant potassium loss (hypokalemia).
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A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is critically low and can lead to life-
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threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. This finding requires immediate reporting. Option A indicates e
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,ffective diuresis. Option C is a normal blood pressure. Option D represents a low urine output (less
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than 30 mL/hr), which is concerning, but hypokalemia is the more immediate and life-
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threatening lab value. jh jh
3. A client is being treated for major depressive disorder and is taking phenelzine (Nardil).
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The PN reinforces dietary teaching. Which food choice by the client indicates a correct und
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erstanding of the instructions? jh jh jh
A. A slice of pepperoni pizza.
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B. A grilled chicken salad with ranch dressing.
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C. A glass of red wine.
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D. A bag of cheddar cheese-flavored chips.
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Correct Answer: D jh jh
Rationale: Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Clients must avoid foods high in
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tyramine, which can cause a hypertensive crisis. Tyramine-
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rich foods include aged cheeses, cured meats (pepperoni), fermented foods, and alcoholic bevera
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ges (especially red wine). Cheddar cheese-
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flavored chips are a safe choice as they do not contain real aged cheese. A grilled chicken salad is
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a better choice than the others, but ranch dressing is generally safe. The chips are the most clearly
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correct choice. jh
4. A PN is preparing to administer a 0900 dose of enoxaparin (Lovenox) subcutaneously. W
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hich action should the PN take?
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A. Expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe before injection.
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B. Massage the injection site vigorously after administration.
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C. Administer the injection in the client's abdomen, at least 2 inches away from the umbilicus.
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D. Rub the site with an alcohol swab after the injection to clean the area.
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Correct Answer: C jh jh
Rationale: Enoxaparin is administered subcutaneously in the abdomen, at least 2 inches away fro
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m the umbilicus. The air bubble in the prefilled syringe is designed to prevent medication from lea
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king from the injection site and should not be expelled. The site should be pinched, and the medic
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ation is injected, but it should not be massaged, as this can cause bruising or hematoma. The site i
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s gently patted or left alone after injection.
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5. A client with a nasogastric (NG) tube connected to low continuous suction is complainin
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g of nausea and abdominal distention. What is the PN's priority action?
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A. Irrigate the NG tube with 30 mL of sterile water.
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B. Check the patency and placement of the NG tube.
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,C. Reposition the client onto their right side.
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D. Administer the prescribed antiemetic medication.
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Correct Answer: B jh jh
Rationale: Nausea and distention in a client with an NG tube indicate a potential blockage or malf
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unction of the tube. The nurse's priority is to assess the patency and placement of the NG tube to
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ensure it is functioning correctly. Irrigating the tube may be necessary, but only after assessing pat
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ency and with a provider's order. Repositioning may help, but assessment comes first. Administeri
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ng an antiemetic does not address the underlying cause of the distention.
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6. A client is admitted with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left calf. Which finding req
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uires the PN's immediate action? jh jh jh jh
A. The client reports a dull ache in the left calf.
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B. The left calf is warm and edematous compared to the right.
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C. The client suddenly develops shortness of breath and chest pain.
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D. The client's left foot is pale and cool to the touch.
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Correct Answer: C jh jh
Rationale: Sudden shortness of breath and chest pain in a client with a DVT are classic signs of a p
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ulmonary embolism (PE), a life- jh jh jh jh
threatening complication. This requires immediate emergency intervention. Options A and B are e
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xpected findings of a DVT. Option D (pale, cool foot) could indicate arterial insufficiency, which is a
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concern but is not as immediately life-threatening as a PE.
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7. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 L/mi
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n via nasal cannula. The PN notes the client is lethargic and has a respiratory rate of 8 breat
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hs per minute. Which action should the PN take first?
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A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 L/min.
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B. Notify the RN immediately.
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C. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
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D. Check the client's oxygen saturation level.
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Correct Answer: B jh jh
Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of oxygen- jh jh jh jh jh jh jh
induced hypoventilation due to a loss of hypoxic drive. With a respiratory rate of 8 and lethargy, th
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e client is at risk for respiratory failure. The PN should not increase the oxygen; instead, they shoul
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d immediately notify the RN or rapid response team. The priority is to get help and prepare for pot
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ential interventions (like BiPAP or intubation). Checking oxygen saturation can be done rapidly, bu
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t the immediate action is to report the significant change in clinical status.
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, 8. The PN is reinforcing discharge teaching to a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Whi
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ch statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?
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A. "I will take a multivitamin with extra vitamin K every day."
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B. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush and an electric razor."
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C. "I will avoid foods like spinach and kale completely."
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D. "I will take ibuprofen for my headaches instead of acetaminophen."
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Correct Answer: B jh jh
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Clients should use a sof
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t-
bristled toothbrush and an electric razor to prevent bleeding from the gums or skin cuts. Vitamin
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K is the antidote to warfarin and should be kept consistent in the diet, not eliminated or suppleme
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nted excessively. The client does not need to avoid green leafy vegetables completely but should
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maintain a consistent intake. Ibuprofen (an NSAID) increases the risk of bleeding and should be av
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oided; acetaminophen is preferred for pain.jh jh jh jh jh
9. A PN is caring for a client who is 6 hours post-
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total hip arthroplasty. Which position is most appropriate for the PN to maintain the client'
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s operative leg in?
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A. Adducted and internally rotated.
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B. Abducted and externally rotated.
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C. Adducted and externally rotated.
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D. Abducted and internally rotated.
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Correct Answer: B jh jh
Rationale: Following a total hip arthroplasty, especially via a posterior approach, the affected leg
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must be positioned to prevent dislocation. The leg should be maintained in abduction (away fro
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m the midline) and external rotation. A pillow or abduction wedge is often placed between the le
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gs. Adduction and internal rotation are the positions that put the new hip at greatest risk for disloc
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ation and must be avoided. jh jh jh jh
10. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which finding is the priority f
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or the PN to report to the RN?
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A. Serum amylase of 200 U/L.
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B. Serum glucose of 150 mg/dL.
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C. Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg.
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D. Pain rated as an 8 on a 0-10 scale.
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Correct Answer: C jh jh
Rationale: Acute pancreatitis can cause a massive shift of fluid into the abdominal cavity ("third sp
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ACTUAL EXAM| ELSEVIER HESI PN
EXIT EXAM V1 WITH COMPLETE 150
REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS/
ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST
RECENT!!)
PN HESI EXIT EXAM V1 - PRACTICE TEST
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1. A practical nurse (PN) is reinforcing teaching to a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus abo
jh jh jh jh jh jh jh jh jh jh jh jh jh jh jh jh
ut preventing hypoglycemia during exercise. Which statement by the client indicates a nee
jh jh jh jh jh jh jh jh jh jh jh jh
d for further teaching?
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A. "I should check my blood glucose level before exercising."
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B. "I should eat a snack if my blood glucose is below 100 mg/dL."
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C. "I should inject my insulin into my thigh before I go for a run."
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D. "I should wear a medical identification bracelet."
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Correct Answer: C jh jh
Rationale: Insulin absorption is increased with exercise, especially when injected into an extremity
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that will be used during the activity (like the thigh for running). This can lead to hypoglycemia. The
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client should inject insulin into the abdomen for more consistent absorption. Options A, B, and D
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are correct actions for preventing hypoglycemia during exercise.
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2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding is
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most important for the PN to report to the registered nurse (RN) immediately?
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A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours.
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B. Serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L.
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C. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg.
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D. Urine output of 120 mL in 4 hours.
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Correct Answer: B jh jh
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant potassium loss (hypokalemia).
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A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is critically low and can lead to life-
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threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. This finding requires immediate reporting. Option A indicates e
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,ffective diuresis. Option C is a normal blood pressure. Option D represents a low urine output (less
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than 30 mL/hr), which is concerning, but hypokalemia is the more immediate and life-
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threatening lab value. jh jh
3. A client is being treated for major depressive disorder and is taking phenelzine (Nardil).
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The PN reinforces dietary teaching. Which food choice by the client indicates a correct und
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erstanding of the instructions? jh jh jh
A. A slice of pepperoni pizza.
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B. A grilled chicken salad with ranch dressing.
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C. A glass of red wine.
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D. A bag of cheddar cheese-flavored chips.
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Correct Answer: D jh jh
Rationale: Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Clients must avoid foods high in
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tyramine, which can cause a hypertensive crisis. Tyramine-
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rich foods include aged cheeses, cured meats (pepperoni), fermented foods, and alcoholic bevera
jh jh jh jh jh jh jh jh jh jh jh jh
ges (especially red wine). Cheddar cheese-
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flavored chips are a safe choice as they do not contain real aged cheese. A grilled chicken salad is
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a better choice than the others, but ranch dressing is generally safe. The chips are the most clearly
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correct choice. jh
4. A PN is preparing to administer a 0900 dose of enoxaparin (Lovenox) subcutaneously. W
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hich action should the PN take?
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A. Expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe before injection.
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B. Massage the injection site vigorously after administration.
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C. Administer the injection in the client's abdomen, at least 2 inches away from the umbilicus.
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D. Rub the site with an alcohol swab after the injection to clean the area.
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Correct Answer: C jh jh
Rationale: Enoxaparin is administered subcutaneously in the abdomen, at least 2 inches away fro
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m the umbilicus. The air bubble in the prefilled syringe is designed to prevent medication from lea
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king from the injection site and should not be expelled. The site should be pinched, and the medic
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ation is injected, but it should not be massaged, as this can cause bruising or hematoma. The site i
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s gently patted or left alone after injection.
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5. A client with a nasogastric (NG) tube connected to low continuous suction is complainin
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g of nausea and abdominal distention. What is the PN's priority action?
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A. Irrigate the NG tube with 30 mL of sterile water.
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B. Check the patency and placement of the NG tube.
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,C. Reposition the client onto their right side.
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D. Administer the prescribed antiemetic medication.
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Correct Answer: B jh jh
Rationale: Nausea and distention in a client with an NG tube indicate a potential blockage or malf
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unction of the tube. The nurse's priority is to assess the patency and placement of the NG tube to
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ensure it is functioning correctly. Irrigating the tube may be necessary, but only after assessing pat
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ency and with a provider's order. Repositioning may help, but assessment comes first. Administeri
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ng an antiemetic does not address the underlying cause of the distention.
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6. A client is admitted with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left calf. Which finding req
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uires the PN's immediate action? jh jh jh jh
A. The client reports a dull ache in the left calf.
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B. The left calf is warm and edematous compared to the right.
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C. The client suddenly develops shortness of breath and chest pain.
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D. The client's left foot is pale and cool to the touch.
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Correct Answer: C jh jh
Rationale: Sudden shortness of breath and chest pain in a client with a DVT are classic signs of a p
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ulmonary embolism (PE), a life- jh jh jh jh
threatening complication. This requires immediate emergency intervention. Options A and B are e
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xpected findings of a DVT. Option D (pale, cool foot) could indicate arterial insufficiency, which is a
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concern but is not as immediately life-threatening as a PE.
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7. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 L/mi
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n via nasal cannula. The PN notes the client is lethargic and has a respiratory rate of 8 breat
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hs per minute. Which action should the PN take first?
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A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 L/min.
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B. Notify the RN immediately.
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C. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
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D. Check the client's oxygen saturation level.
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Correct Answer: B jh jh
Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of oxygen- jh jh jh jh jh jh jh
induced hypoventilation due to a loss of hypoxic drive. With a respiratory rate of 8 and lethargy, th
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e client is at risk for respiratory failure. The PN should not increase the oxygen; instead, they shoul
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d immediately notify the RN or rapid response team. The priority is to get help and prepare for pot
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ential interventions (like BiPAP or intubation). Checking oxygen saturation can be done rapidly, bu
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t the immediate action is to report the significant change in clinical status.
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, 8. The PN is reinforcing discharge teaching to a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Whi
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ch statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?
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A. "I will take a multivitamin with extra vitamin K every day."
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B. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush and an electric razor."
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C. "I will avoid foods like spinach and kale completely."
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D. "I will take ibuprofen for my headaches instead of acetaminophen."
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Correct Answer: B jh jh
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Clients should use a sof
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t-
bristled toothbrush and an electric razor to prevent bleeding from the gums or skin cuts. Vitamin
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K is the antidote to warfarin and should be kept consistent in the diet, not eliminated or suppleme
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nted excessively. The client does not need to avoid green leafy vegetables completely but should
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maintain a consistent intake. Ibuprofen (an NSAID) increases the risk of bleeding and should be av
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oided; acetaminophen is preferred for pain.jh jh jh jh jh
9. A PN is caring for a client who is 6 hours post-
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total hip arthroplasty. Which position is most appropriate for the PN to maintain the client'
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s operative leg in?
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A. Adducted and internally rotated.
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B. Abducted and externally rotated.
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C. Adducted and externally rotated.
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D. Abducted and internally rotated.
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Correct Answer: B jh jh
Rationale: Following a total hip arthroplasty, especially via a posterior approach, the affected leg
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must be positioned to prevent dislocation. The leg should be maintained in abduction (away fro
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m the midline) and external rotation. A pillow or abduction wedge is often placed between the le
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gs. Adduction and internal rotation are the positions that put the new hip at greatest risk for disloc
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ation and must be avoided. jh jh jh jh
10. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which finding is the priority f
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or the PN to report to the RN?
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A. Serum amylase of 200 U/L.
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B. Serum glucose of 150 mg/dL.
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C. Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg.
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D. Pain rated as an 8 on a 0-10 scale.
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Correct Answer: C jh jh
Rationale: Acute pancreatitis can cause a massive shift of fluid into the abdominal cavity ("third sp
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