NURS 5315 Full Exam #3 Review | Questions and Correct
Answers | (Updated 2026/27) Graded A+ | UT Arlington
An 84-year-old female patient with a history of severe aortic stenosis is going to surgery tomorrow for a
repair of a right hip fracture. Which of the following complications is the patient most likely to have
postoperatively?
Pulmonary edema
Right Ventricular Hypertrophy
Left Ventricular Hypertrophy
Pulmonary Fibrosis
-Aortic stenosis is a narrowing of the aortic valve. Blood from the left ventricle passes through the aortic
valve into the aorta to perfuse the body. Understanding this anatomy is essential to answering the
question correctly. In an aortic stenosis the valve is narrowed. The more severe the narrowing of the
aortic valve, the less blood moves through the valve to perfuse the body. As a result blood backs up in
the left ventricle and over time causes left ventricular hypertrophy. The backup of blood will also
eventually cause left atrial hypertrophy, left-sided heart failure, pulmonary HTN, right ventricular
hypertrophy and right-sided heart failure. As a result an individual with severe aortic stenosis is at an
increased risk for pulmonary edema post-operatively because they are unable to appropriately
compensate for the IV fluids given during surgery. Ventricular hypertrophy may happen as a result of the
stenosis but it is not an acute complication. Pulmonary fibrosis is a chronic condition in the lungs which
results in the scarring of the lung tissue and it is not related to aortic stenosis.
Question 2
pts
A 76-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with a complaint of syncope. Diagnostic evaluation
reveals that she has an atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 160. Which statement below best explains
the reason why this patient had a syncopal episode.
A decrease in cardiac output caused a decrease in cerebral perfusion.
A cardiac embolus temporarily blocked cerebral perfusion.
A stenotic aortic valve resulted in a decrease in cerebral perfusion.
She stood up to fast and experienced an orthostatic hypotensive episode.
-Atrial fibrillation results in a loss of the atrial kick which supplies 20% of the cardiac output. There was
indeed decreased perfusion to the brain but it was due to a low cardiac output secondary to the atrial
, fibrillation. The question does not give any information in it to suggest that the patient experienced an
orthostatic hypotensive episode.
Question 3
pts
A 72-year-old male patient with a history of diabetes mellitus type 2 and systolic heart failure. He has
never been diagnosed with hypertension and his physical exam is normal. What is the most likely cause
of his heart failure?
Infiltrative
Coronary Artery Disease
Valvular Disease
Infectious
-The most likely cause of this patient’s heart failure is chronic ischemic changes secondary to coronary
artery disease. Diabetes mellitus increases the risk for the development of coronary artery disease. He
does not have any risk factors which suggests a different cause.
Question 4
pts
Which patient is at the most risk for developing heart failure?
A 45-year-old male with a history of uncontrolled hypertension, diabetes, and CAD.
A 35-year-old male with prediabetes.
A 45-year-old male with a history of gout.
A 65-year-old female with a pulmonary embolus.
-The 45-year-old male with a history of uncontrolled hypertension, diabetes, and CAD has the greatest
risk for developing heart failure. All of his comorbid conditions are risk factors for heart failure.
Prediabetes, pulmonary embolus, and gout are not risk factors for heart failure.
Question 5
pts
Answers | (Updated 2026/27) Graded A+ | UT Arlington
An 84-year-old female patient with a history of severe aortic stenosis is going to surgery tomorrow for a
repair of a right hip fracture. Which of the following complications is the patient most likely to have
postoperatively?
Pulmonary edema
Right Ventricular Hypertrophy
Left Ventricular Hypertrophy
Pulmonary Fibrosis
-Aortic stenosis is a narrowing of the aortic valve. Blood from the left ventricle passes through the aortic
valve into the aorta to perfuse the body. Understanding this anatomy is essential to answering the
question correctly. In an aortic stenosis the valve is narrowed. The more severe the narrowing of the
aortic valve, the less blood moves through the valve to perfuse the body. As a result blood backs up in
the left ventricle and over time causes left ventricular hypertrophy. The backup of blood will also
eventually cause left atrial hypertrophy, left-sided heart failure, pulmonary HTN, right ventricular
hypertrophy and right-sided heart failure. As a result an individual with severe aortic stenosis is at an
increased risk for pulmonary edema post-operatively because they are unable to appropriately
compensate for the IV fluids given during surgery. Ventricular hypertrophy may happen as a result of the
stenosis but it is not an acute complication. Pulmonary fibrosis is a chronic condition in the lungs which
results in the scarring of the lung tissue and it is not related to aortic stenosis.
Question 2
pts
A 76-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with a complaint of syncope. Diagnostic evaluation
reveals that she has an atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 160. Which statement below best explains
the reason why this patient had a syncopal episode.
A decrease in cardiac output caused a decrease in cerebral perfusion.
A cardiac embolus temporarily blocked cerebral perfusion.
A stenotic aortic valve resulted in a decrease in cerebral perfusion.
She stood up to fast and experienced an orthostatic hypotensive episode.
-Atrial fibrillation results in a loss of the atrial kick which supplies 20% of the cardiac output. There was
indeed decreased perfusion to the brain but it was due to a low cardiac output secondary to the atrial
, fibrillation. The question does not give any information in it to suggest that the patient experienced an
orthostatic hypotensive episode.
Question 3
pts
A 72-year-old male patient with a history of diabetes mellitus type 2 and systolic heart failure. He has
never been diagnosed with hypertension and his physical exam is normal. What is the most likely cause
of his heart failure?
Infiltrative
Coronary Artery Disease
Valvular Disease
Infectious
-The most likely cause of this patient’s heart failure is chronic ischemic changes secondary to coronary
artery disease. Diabetes mellitus increases the risk for the development of coronary artery disease. He
does not have any risk factors which suggests a different cause.
Question 4
pts
Which patient is at the most risk for developing heart failure?
A 45-year-old male with a history of uncontrolled hypertension, diabetes, and CAD.
A 35-year-old male with prediabetes.
A 45-year-old male with a history of gout.
A 65-year-old female with a pulmonary embolus.
-The 45-year-old male with a history of uncontrolled hypertension, diabetes, and CAD has the greatest
risk for developing heart failure. All of his comorbid conditions are risk factors for heart failure.
Prediabetes, pulmonary embolus, and gout are not risk factors for heart failure.
Question 5
pts
