[PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2 - CHAMBERLAIN
UNIVERSITY] COMPLETE EXAM QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS | 2026–2027 LATEST UPDATE |
GUARANTEED PASS | DETAILED RATIONALES |
FULL STUDY GUIDE | EXAM PREP | PRACTICE TEST |
CERTIFICATION PREPARATION
1. A nurse is teaching a patient about nitroglycerin sublingual tablets for angina. Which
instruction is most important?
A. Swallow the tablet with water immediately after chest pain begins.
B. Store the tablets in a bathroom medicine cabinet.
C. Place the tablet under the tongue and allow it to dissolve.
D. Take the medication only at bedtime.
Correct Answer: C. Place the tablet under the tongue and allow it to dissolve.
Rationale:
Nitroglycerin is designed for rapid absorption through the oral mucosa. Swallowing delays
absorption, and improper storage may reduce potency. Bedtime-only use is not appropriate for
acute angina relief.
2. A patient taking warfarin asks why regular INR monitoring is necessary. What is the
best response?
A. To evaluate kidney function
B. To assess blood clotting and adjust dosage
C. To monitor liver enzyme production only
D. To determine hydration status
Correct Answer: B. To assess blood clotting and adjust dosage
Rationale:
INR monitoring helps determine the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. It guides dose
adjustments and reduces the risk of bleeding or thrombosis.
3. Which adverse effect should a nurse monitor for in a patient receiving opioid analgesics?
A. Hypertension
B. Tachycardia
C. Diarrhea
D. Respiratory depression
Correct Answer: D. Respiratory depression
Rationale:
Respiratory depression is a potentially life-threatening opioid adverse effect. The nurse should
closely assess respiratory rate, oxygenation, and level of consciousness.
4. A patient prescribed lisinopril develops a persistent dry cough. What is the most likely
cause?
A. Excess sodium retention
,B. Bradykinin accumulation
C. Potassium depletion
D. Increased histamine release
Correct Answer: B. Bradykinin accumulation
Rationale:
ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin levels, which can cause a persistent dry cough. This is a
common reason for medication discontinuation.
5. Which laboratory value is most important to review before administering digoxin?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Platelet count
C. Potassium level
D. White blood cell count
Correct Answer: C. Potassium level
Rationale:
Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Potassium levels should be evaluated before
administration.
6. A patient receiving insulin reports shakiness and sweating. What should the nurse
suspect first?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Infection
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Ketoacidosis
Correct Answer: C. Hypoglycemia
Rationale:
Shakiness, sweating, and nervousness are classic signs of hypoglycemia. Immediate glucose
assessment and intervention are indicated.
7. Which medication classification is commonly used as first-line therapy for hypertension?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Antifungals
C. Antivirals
D. Opioids
Correct Answer: A. ACE inhibitors
Rationale:
ACE inhibitors are frequently used as initial treatment for hypertension due to their effectiveness
and cardiovascular benefits.
8. A patient taking furosemide should be monitored for which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypermagnesemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypokalemia
Correct Answer: D. Hypokalemia
, Rationale:
Loop diuretics promote potassium loss through the kidneys, increasing the risk of hypokalemia.
9. Which statement by a patient taking antibiotics indicates a need for further teaching?
A. “I will finish the entire prescription.”
B. “I can stop taking it when I feel better.”
C. “I should take doses as prescribed.”
D. “I will report severe diarrhea.”
Correct Answer: B. “I can stop taking it when I feel better.”
Rationale:
Stopping antibiotics early can contribute to treatment failure and antimicrobial resistance. The
full course should be completed.
10. A nurse is administering heparin. Which assessment finding requires immediate
attention?
A. Mild headache
B. Dry skin
C. Bleeding gums
D. Increased appetite
Correct Answer: C. Bleeding gums
Rationale:
Bleeding gums may indicate excessive anticoagulation and increased bleeding risk requiring
prompt evaluation.
11. Which medication is classified as a beta blocker?
A. Metoprolol
B. Losartan
C. Amlodipine
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Correct Answer: A. Metoprolol
Rationale:
Metoprolol is a beta-adrenergic blocker used for hypertension, angina, and heart failure
management.
12. A patient taking corticosteroids long term is at increased risk for which complication?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: B. Osteoporosis
Rationale:
Long-term corticosteroid therapy decreases bone density, increasing fracture risk and
osteoporosis development.
13. Which finding may indicate digoxin toxicity?
A. Polyuria
UNIVERSITY] COMPLETE EXAM QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS | 2026–2027 LATEST UPDATE |
GUARANTEED PASS | DETAILED RATIONALES |
FULL STUDY GUIDE | EXAM PREP | PRACTICE TEST |
CERTIFICATION PREPARATION
1. A nurse is teaching a patient about nitroglycerin sublingual tablets for angina. Which
instruction is most important?
A. Swallow the tablet with water immediately after chest pain begins.
B. Store the tablets in a bathroom medicine cabinet.
C. Place the tablet under the tongue and allow it to dissolve.
D. Take the medication only at bedtime.
Correct Answer: C. Place the tablet under the tongue and allow it to dissolve.
Rationale:
Nitroglycerin is designed for rapid absorption through the oral mucosa. Swallowing delays
absorption, and improper storage may reduce potency. Bedtime-only use is not appropriate for
acute angina relief.
2. A patient taking warfarin asks why regular INR monitoring is necessary. What is the
best response?
A. To evaluate kidney function
B. To assess blood clotting and adjust dosage
C. To monitor liver enzyme production only
D. To determine hydration status
Correct Answer: B. To assess blood clotting and adjust dosage
Rationale:
INR monitoring helps determine the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. It guides dose
adjustments and reduces the risk of bleeding or thrombosis.
3. Which adverse effect should a nurse monitor for in a patient receiving opioid analgesics?
A. Hypertension
B. Tachycardia
C. Diarrhea
D. Respiratory depression
Correct Answer: D. Respiratory depression
Rationale:
Respiratory depression is a potentially life-threatening opioid adverse effect. The nurse should
closely assess respiratory rate, oxygenation, and level of consciousness.
4. A patient prescribed lisinopril develops a persistent dry cough. What is the most likely
cause?
A. Excess sodium retention
,B. Bradykinin accumulation
C. Potassium depletion
D. Increased histamine release
Correct Answer: B. Bradykinin accumulation
Rationale:
ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin levels, which can cause a persistent dry cough. This is a
common reason for medication discontinuation.
5. Which laboratory value is most important to review before administering digoxin?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Platelet count
C. Potassium level
D. White blood cell count
Correct Answer: C. Potassium level
Rationale:
Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Potassium levels should be evaluated before
administration.
6. A patient receiving insulin reports shakiness and sweating. What should the nurse
suspect first?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Infection
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Ketoacidosis
Correct Answer: C. Hypoglycemia
Rationale:
Shakiness, sweating, and nervousness are classic signs of hypoglycemia. Immediate glucose
assessment and intervention are indicated.
7. Which medication classification is commonly used as first-line therapy for hypertension?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Antifungals
C. Antivirals
D. Opioids
Correct Answer: A. ACE inhibitors
Rationale:
ACE inhibitors are frequently used as initial treatment for hypertension due to their effectiveness
and cardiovascular benefits.
8. A patient taking furosemide should be monitored for which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypermagnesemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypokalemia
Correct Answer: D. Hypokalemia
, Rationale:
Loop diuretics promote potassium loss through the kidneys, increasing the risk of hypokalemia.
9. Which statement by a patient taking antibiotics indicates a need for further teaching?
A. “I will finish the entire prescription.”
B. “I can stop taking it when I feel better.”
C. “I should take doses as prescribed.”
D. “I will report severe diarrhea.”
Correct Answer: B. “I can stop taking it when I feel better.”
Rationale:
Stopping antibiotics early can contribute to treatment failure and antimicrobial resistance. The
full course should be completed.
10. A nurse is administering heparin. Which assessment finding requires immediate
attention?
A. Mild headache
B. Dry skin
C. Bleeding gums
D. Increased appetite
Correct Answer: C. Bleeding gums
Rationale:
Bleeding gums may indicate excessive anticoagulation and increased bleeding risk requiring
prompt evaluation.
11. Which medication is classified as a beta blocker?
A. Metoprolol
B. Losartan
C. Amlodipine
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Correct Answer: A. Metoprolol
Rationale:
Metoprolol is a beta-adrenergic blocker used for hypertension, angina, and heart failure
management.
12. A patient taking corticosteroids long term is at increased risk for which complication?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: B. Osteoporosis
Rationale:
Long-term corticosteroid therapy decreases bone density, increasing fracture risk and
osteoporosis development.
13. Which finding may indicate digoxin toxicity?
A. Polyuria
