==============================
EXAMINATION PAPER
EXAM TITLE: ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn Assessment Questions |
100% Correct Answers with Detailed Rationales (2026/2027 Edition)
Nursing ATI Capstone Assessment – Maternal-Newborn Nursing
==============================
SECTION 1: Antepartum Nursing Care
Question 1
A client at 10 weeks gestation presents to the prenatal clinic with severe nausea and
vomiting, weight loss of 5 pounds, and ketonuria. Her vital signs are stable, but she
appears dehydrated. The nurse should recognize these findings as most consistent with
which condition?
A. Normal physiological changes of early pregnancy
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
C. Gestational diabetes mellitus
D. Acute gastroenteritis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by severe, persistent nausea and
vomiting leading to weight loss (more than 5% of pre-pregnancy weight), dehydration,
,electrolyte imbalances, and ketonuria. It typically occurs before 20 weeks gestation and
requires intervention including IV hydration, antiemetics, and nutritional support. Normal
morning sickness does not cause significant weight loss or ketonuria.
Question 2
A client at 28 weeks gestation with a pre-pregnancy BMI of 32 is diagnosed with
gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). The nurse is providing dietary education. Which
statement by the client indicates correct understanding?
A. "I should eliminate all carbohydrates from my diet to keep my blood sugar low."
B. "I need to eat complex carbohydrates in controlled portions and distribute them
throughout the day to maintain stable glucose levels."
C. "I can eat whatever I want as long as I take my insulin before meals."
D. "Fruit juice is a healthy choice and I can drink it without restriction."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Medical nutrition therapy for GDM emphasizes consuming complex
carbohydrates in controlled portions distributed across three meals and three snacks to
prevent postprandial glucose spikes. Carbohydrates should not be eliminated as they
are essential for fetal brain development. Simple sugars and fruit juices are limited due
to rapid glucose absorption. Insulin may be required if diet and exercise do not achieve
glycemic targets, but dietary management remains foundational.
,Question 3
A client at 34 weeks gestation is diagnosed with mild preeclampsia. Her blood pressure
is 152/94 mmHg, and she has 1+ proteinuria. Which assessment finding would most
concern the nurse and warrant immediate notification of the provider?
A. The client reports mild ankle edema at the end of the day.
B. The client reports a severe headache and visual disturbances.
C. The client has gained 1 pound since her last visit one week ago.
D. The client reports increased fetal movement.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Severe headache and visual disturbances (scotomata, blurred vision) are
hallmark symptoms of severe preeclampsia and indicate potential progression to
eclampsia. These neurological symptoms reflect cerebral edema and vasospasm and
require immediate provider notification and possible magnesium sulfate therapy. Mild
ankle edema and a 1-pound weight gain are common in the third trimester. Increased
fetal movement is reassuring.
Question 4
A client at 18 weeks gestation reports painless vaginal bleeding. Ultrasound confirms a
placenta previa. Which nursing instruction is most appropriate?
A. "You may continue your regular exercise routine including jogging."
, B. "You should avoid vaginal examinations, intercourse, and strenuous activity; report
any bleeding immediately."
C. "This condition will resolve on its own by 20 weeks, so no restrictions are needed."
D. "You should schedule a vaginal delivery since the placenta will move out of the way
during labor."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Placenta previa is managed expectantly with activity restriction, pelvic rest
(no intercourse or vaginal examinations), and monitoring for bleeding. Vaginal
examinations are contraindicated as they can precipitate catastrophic hemorrhage.
While marginal previa may resolve as the uterus grows, complete previa does not and
requires cesarean delivery. The nurse educates the client on signs of hemorrhage and
the need for immediate medical attention.
Question 5
A client at 24 weeks gestation with Rh-negative blood type and a negative antibody
screen asks the nurse why she needs RhoGAM. Which explanation is most accurate?
A. "RhoGAM prevents you from developing antibodies against Rh-positive fetal blood
cells, protecting future pregnancies."
B. "RhoGAM treats any existing antibodies in your bloodstream."
C. "RhoGAM is given to prevent the fetus from developing anemia during this
pregnancy."
D. "RhoGAM is only necessary if your partner is Rh-negative."
EXAMINATION PAPER
EXAM TITLE: ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn Assessment Questions |
100% Correct Answers with Detailed Rationales (2026/2027 Edition)
Nursing ATI Capstone Assessment – Maternal-Newborn Nursing
==============================
SECTION 1: Antepartum Nursing Care
Question 1
A client at 10 weeks gestation presents to the prenatal clinic with severe nausea and
vomiting, weight loss of 5 pounds, and ketonuria. Her vital signs are stable, but she
appears dehydrated. The nurse should recognize these findings as most consistent with
which condition?
A. Normal physiological changes of early pregnancy
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
C. Gestational diabetes mellitus
D. Acute gastroenteritis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by severe, persistent nausea and
vomiting leading to weight loss (more than 5% of pre-pregnancy weight), dehydration,
,electrolyte imbalances, and ketonuria. It typically occurs before 20 weeks gestation and
requires intervention including IV hydration, antiemetics, and nutritional support. Normal
morning sickness does not cause significant weight loss or ketonuria.
Question 2
A client at 28 weeks gestation with a pre-pregnancy BMI of 32 is diagnosed with
gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). The nurse is providing dietary education. Which
statement by the client indicates correct understanding?
A. "I should eliminate all carbohydrates from my diet to keep my blood sugar low."
B. "I need to eat complex carbohydrates in controlled portions and distribute them
throughout the day to maintain stable glucose levels."
C. "I can eat whatever I want as long as I take my insulin before meals."
D. "Fruit juice is a healthy choice and I can drink it without restriction."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Medical nutrition therapy for GDM emphasizes consuming complex
carbohydrates in controlled portions distributed across three meals and three snacks to
prevent postprandial glucose spikes. Carbohydrates should not be eliminated as they
are essential for fetal brain development. Simple sugars and fruit juices are limited due
to rapid glucose absorption. Insulin may be required if diet and exercise do not achieve
glycemic targets, but dietary management remains foundational.
,Question 3
A client at 34 weeks gestation is diagnosed with mild preeclampsia. Her blood pressure
is 152/94 mmHg, and she has 1+ proteinuria. Which assessment finding would most
concern the nurse and warrant immediate notification of the provider?
A. The client reports mild ankle edema at the end of the day.
B. The client reports a severe headache and visual disturbances.
C. The client has gained 1 pound since her last visit one week ago.
D. The client reports increased fetal movement.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Severe headache and visual disturbances (scotomata, blurred vision) are
hallmark symptoms of severe preeclampsia and indicate potential progression to
eclampsia. These neurological symptoms reflect cerebral edema and vasospasm and
require immediate provider notification and possible magnesium sulfate therapy. Mild
ankle edema and a 1-pound weight gain are common in the third trimester. Increased
fetal movement is reassuring.
Question 4
A client at 18 weeks gestation reports painless vaginal bleeding. Ultrasound confirms a
placenta previa. Which nursing instruction is most appropriate?
A. "You may continue your regular exercise routine including jogging."
, B. "You should avoid vaginal examinations, intercourse, and strenuous activity; report
any bleeding immediately."
C. "This condition will resolve on its own by 20 weeks, so no restrictions are needed."
D. "You should schedule a vaginal delivery since the placenta will move out of the way
during labor."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Placenta previa is managed expectantly with activity restriction, pelvic rest
(no intercourse or vaginal examinations), and monitoring for bleeding. Vaginal
examinations are contraindicated as they can precipitate catastrophic hemorrhage.
While marginal previa may resolve as the uterus grows, complete previa does not and
requires cesarean delivery. The nurse educates the client on signs of hemorrhage and
the need for immediate medical attention.
Question 5
A client at 24 weeks gestation with Rh-negative blood type and a negative antibody
screen asks the nurse why she needs RhoGAM. Which explanation is most accurate?
A. "RhoGAM prevents you from developing antibodies against Rh-positive fetal blood
cells, protecting future pregnancies."
B. "RhoGAM treats any existing antibodies in your bloodstream."
C. "RhoGAM is given to prevent the fetus from developing anemia during this
pregnancy."
D. "RhoGAM is only necessary if your partner is Rh-negative."
