EFMB Official Study Guide 2026-2027
The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior-
Posterior (AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n) - correctZanswer-
portable x-ray machine
T/F: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by cervical spine radiographic evaluation
(CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE is unavailable. - correct answer-F
WhatZis the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography scanner? - correct answer-RoleZ3
WhatZis the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine? - correct answer-Role 2
Members of the trauma team should have aprons and thyroid shields available near the trauma ba
y for radiation safety. - correct answer-lead
Distance isZalso protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's condition, any perso
nnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from the x-
ray unit. The recommended minimal distance is - correct answer-6 feet
While the FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable blunt trauma patients, it has b
ecome a standard tool in the trauma bay and Emergency Department (ED) in most trauma patients. FAST
stands for - correct answer-Focused Abdominal Sonographic Assessment for Trauma
FAST in combat trauma hasZa sensitivity of only 56% and specificity of - correct answer-98%
T/F: The FAST exam remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and mesenteric injury -
correct answer-F
T/F: At theZRole 3, properly trained providers including radiologists, surgeons, and emergency physicians,
can perform and interpret FAST scans in the emergency department on a handheld portable device. -
correct answer-T
,AZFAST examination isZperformed with a portable hand-held machine most commonly using a standard 3-
7 MHz curved array probe. -Zcorrect answer-US
The standard FAST examination isZfocused on evaluating for the presence of in certain a
reas of the body. - correct answer-free intraperitoneal fluid
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right upper quadrant. You are inspecti
ng between which two organs? - correct answer-liver and kidney
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upper quadrant. You are inspectin
g between which two organs? - correctZanswer-spleen and kidney
An 18g IV is typically desired for Computed Tomography IV access. - correct answer-
antecubital
T/F: The goal of Computed Tomography contrast injection is to provide concurrent solid organ enhancem
ent, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary arterial. -Zcorrect answer-T
T/F: When performing Computed Tomography scan on a Military Working Dog, utilize a scanning protocol
based on the adult settings to include the doses of and rates of contrast administration. - correct answer-
F
T/F: All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should haveZimages sent electronically ahead of t
ime as well as have a CD created to send with the patient as a backup. - correct answer-T
T/F: Magnetic Resonance Imaging is widely used in theater, as its utility in the acute management of com
bat trauma was extensively establishment during Operation Enduring Freedom. - correct answer-F
All trauma patients arriving at a Role will receive proper and expeditious radiologic screening of injuri
es. - correct answer-role 3
T/F: Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. - correct answer-F
,The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: - correct answer-
hearing loss, tinnitus (ringing in the ear), aural fullness, recruitment (ear pain with loud noise), difficulty l
ocalizing sounds, difficulty hearing in a noisy background, and vertigo
Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) thatZis either or
. -Zcorrect answer-
temporary (temporary threshold shift, TTS) or permanent (permanent threshold shift, PTS)
The ear, specifically the , is the most sensitive organ to primary blast injury (PBI). -
correct answer-tympanic membrane (TM)
T/F: The smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the likelihood is of spontane
ous closure. - correct answer-T
The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do so within the first
after injury. - correct answer-8 weeks
Acute management of intratemporal facial nerve injury isZto provide objective documentation of facial m
ovement using the scale. - correctZanswer-House-Brackmann grading
T/F: For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must always be provided rega
rdless of contraindications. - correct answer-F
Which inner ear abnormalities may cause vertigo? - correct answer-
otic capsule violating temporal bone fractures, secondary infections of the inner ear or vestibular nerves,
trauma induced endolymphaticZhydrops, and activation of subclinical superior semicircular canal dehisce
nce
All Service Members that develop symptoms consistent with noise trauma (acute tinnitus, muffled hearin
g, fullness in the ear) should: - correct answer-be educated and directed to self-
report for evaluation and possible treatment as soon as practicable
What is the best course of action if you find debris in the external auditory canal or in the middle ear? -
correct answer-
, treat the patient with a fluoroquinolone and steroid containing topical antibiotic (e.g., four (4) drops of ci
profloxacin/dexamethasone or ofloxacin in the affected ear three (3) times a day for seven (7) days).
Hearing loss that persists hours after acoustic trauma warrants a hearing test or audiogram. -
correct answer-72
T/F: Vestibular trauma to the inner ear may manifest in vertigo. - correctZanswer-T
All patients with subjective hearing loss and tinnitus following blast exposure should: - correct answer-
have the exposure documented, and should be evaluated by hearing testing as soon as possible.
Patients with TTS greater than losses in three consecutive frequencies should be considered cand
idates for high dose oral and/or transtympanic steroid injections when not otherwise contraindicated. -
correct answer-25 dB
What are indications for endotracheal intubation during your initial burn survey? - correct answer-
comatose patient, symptomatic inhalation injury, deep facial burns, and burns over 40%ZTotal Body Surfa
ce Area (TBSA)
Burn casualties with injuries greater than Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) are at high risk of hypother
mia. - correct answer-20%
T/F: When providingZpoint of injury care to a burn patient, you must immediately debride blisters and cov
er burns with loose, moist gauze wraps or a wet clean sheet. - correct answer-F
Calculate a burn patient's initial burn size using the Rule of . - correct answer-nines
Which type of burn is NOT included in the estimation of Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) used for fluid res
uscitation? - correct answer-Superficial (1st degree) burn
Which classification of burns are moist and sensate, blister, and blanch? - correct answer-
Partial thicknessZburns (2nd degree)
The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior-
Posterior (AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n) - correctZanswer-
portable x-ray machine
T/F: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by cervical spine radiographic evaluation
(CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE is unavailable. - correct answer-F
WhatZis the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography scanner? - correct answer-RoleZ3
WhatZis the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine? - correct answer-Role 2
Members of the trauma team should have aprons and thyroid shields available near the trauma ba
y for radiation safety. - correct answer-lead
Distance isZalso protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's condition, any perso
nnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from the x-
ray unit. The recommended minimal distance is - correct answer-6 feet
While the FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable blunt trauma patients, it has b
ecome a standard tool in the trauma bay and Emergency Department (ED) in most trauma patients. FAST
stands for - correct answer-Focused Abdominal Sonographic Assessment for Trauma
FAST in combat trauma hasZa sensitivity of only 56% and specificity of - correct answer-98%
T/F: The FAST exam remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and mesenteric injury -
correct answer-F
T/F: At theZRole 3, properly trained providers including radiologists, surgeons, and emergency physicians,
can perform and interpret FAST scans in the emergency department on a handheld portable device. -
correct answer-T
,AZFAST examination isZperformed with a portable hand-held machine most commonly using a standard 3-
7 MHz curved array probe. -Zcorrect answer-US
The standard FAST examination isZfocused on evaluating for the presence of in certain a
reas of the body. - correct answer-free intraperitoneal fluid
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right upper quadrant. You are inspecti
ng between which two organs? - correct answer-liver and kidney
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upper quadrant. You are inspectin
g between which two organs? - correctZanswer-spleen and kidney
An 18g IV is typically desired for Computed Tomography IV access. - correct answer-
antecubital
T/F: The goal of Computed Tomography contrast injection is to provide concurrent solid organ enhancem
ent, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary arterial. -Zcorrect answer-T
T/F: When performing Computed Tomography scan on a Military Working Dog, utilize a scanning protocol
based on the adult settings to include the doses of and rates of contrast administration. - correct answer-
F
T/F: All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should haveZimages sent electronically ahead of t
ime as well as have a CD created to send with the patient as a backup. - correct answer-T
T/F: Magnetic Resonance Imaging is widely used in theater, as its utility in the acute management of com
bat trauma was extensively establishment during Operation Enduring Freedom. - correct answer-F
All trauma patients arriving at a Role will receive proper and expeditious radiologic screening of injuri
es. - correct answer-role 3
T/F: Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. - correct answer-F
,The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: - correct answer-
hearing loss, tinnitus (ringing in the ear), aural fullness, recruitment (ear pain with loud noise), difficulty l
ocalizing sounds, difficulty hearing in a noisy background, and vertigo
Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) thatZis either or
. -Zcorrect answer-
temporary (temporary threshold shift, TTS) or permanent (permanent threshold shift, PTS)
The ear, specifically the , is the most sensitive organ to primary blast injury (PBI). -
correct answer-tympanic membrane (TM)
T/F: The smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the likelihood is of spontane
ous closure. - correct answer-T
The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do so within the first
after injury. - correct answer-8 weeks
Acute management of intratemporal facial nerve injury isZto provide objective documentation of facial m
ovement using the scale. - correctZanswer-House-Brackmann grading
T/F: For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must always be provided rega
rdless of contraindications. - correct answer-F
Which inner ear abnormalities may cause vertigo? - correct answer-
otic capsule violating temporal bone fractures, secondary infections of the inner ear or vestibular nerves,
trauma induced endolymphaticZhydrops, and activation of subclinical superior semicircular canal dehisce
nce
All Service Members that develop symptoms consistent with noise trauma (acute tinnitus, muffled hearin
g, fullness in the ear) should: - correct answer-be educated and directed to self-
report for evaluation and possible treatment as soon as practicable
What is the best course of action if you find debris in the external auditory canal or in the middle ear? -
correct answer-
, treat the patient with a fluoroquinolone and steroid containing topical antibiotic (e.g., four (4) drops of ci
profloxacin/dexamethasone or ofloxacin in the affected ear three (3) times a day for seven (7) days).
Hearing loss that persists hours after acoustic trauma warrants a hearing test or audiogram. -
correct answer-72
T/F: Vestibular trauma to the inner ear may manifest in vertigo. - correctZanswer-T
All patients with subjective hearing loss and tinnitus following blast exposure should: - correct answer-
have the exposure documented, and should be evaluated by hearing testing as soon as possible.
Patients with TTS greater than losses in three consecutive frequencies should be considered cand
idates for high dose oral and/or transtympanic steroid injections when not otherwise contraindicated. -
correct answer-25 dB
What are indications for endotracheal intubation during your initial burn survey? - correct answer-
comatose patient, symptomatic inhalation injury, deep facial burns, and burns over 40%ZTotal Body Surfa
ce Area (TBSA)
Burn casualties with injuries greater than Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) are at high risk of hypother
mia. - correct answer-20%
T/F: When providingZpoint of injury care to a burn patient, you must immediately debride blisters and cov
er burns with loose, moist gauze wraps or a wet clean sheet. - correct answer-F
Calculate a burn patient's initial burn size using the Rule of . - correct answer-nines
Which type of burn is NOT included in the estimation of Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) used for fluid res
uscitation? - correct answer-Superficial (1st degree) burn
Which classification of burns are moist and sensate, blister, and blanch? - correct answer-
Partial thicknessZburns (2nd degree)
