NSG 3500 Maternity Exam 2 Prep Document | 2026/2027
Edition | 250 Verified Questions
NSG 3500 Maternity Exam 2 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED
A+. 100% Verified Solutions | Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive exam preparation document contains 250 verified questions and answers for NSG
3500 Maternity Exam 2 at Galen College of Nursing. Covering key maternal-newborn nursing topics,
this resource is designed to help students achieve a top score. Each question includes correct answers
and rationales, reflecting the latest 2026/2027 curriculum and clinical guidelines. Ideal for focused
review and self-assessment.
Key Features:
Antepartum Care and Complications
Intrapartum Nursing Interventions
Postpartum Assessment and Care
Newborn Transition and Resuscitation
High-Risk Pregnancies (e.g., Preeclampsia, Diabetes)
Pharmacology for Maternity Nursing
Updates for 2026:
- Updated to reflect 2026/2027 AWHONN and ACOG guidelines
- Added new questions on COVID-19 in pregnancy
- Revised rationales for evidence-based practice alignment
- Expanded coverage of postpartum hemorrhage management
- Included updated medication dosages and safety alerts
Abstract:
This exam preparation document for NSG 3500 Maternity Exam 2 at Galen College of Nursing comprises 250
verified questions and answers, meticulously curated to align with the 2026/2027 academic year. The content spans
antepartum, intrapartum, postpartum, and newborn care, with emphasis on high-risk conditions, nursing
interventions, and pharmacological management. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a
detailed rationale, ensuring comprehensive understanding. The document is graded A+ and reflects the most
recent clinical guidelines, making it an essential tool for exam success. Students will benefit from focused review
on key topics such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, labor stages, and neonatal resuscitation. The structured
format facilitates efficient study and self-assessment, promoting mastery of maternity nursing concepts.
Keywords:
NSG 3500, Maternity Exam 2, Galen College, Maternal-Newborn Nursing, Antepartum Care, Intrapartum Care,
Postpartum Care, High-Risk Pregnancy
Answer Format:
Each question is presented with four answer options, followed by the correct answer and a detailed rationale
explaining why it is correct and why the others are incorrect. Rationales include references to nursing interventions,
pathophysiology, and evidence-based guidelines. Distractors are analyzed to clarify common misconceptions.
Compliance Checklist:
All questions verified against 2026/2027 Galen curriculum
Answers graded A+ by subject matter experts
Rationales aligned with current AWHONN/ACOG standards
Page 1
, Content covers all exam blueprint topics
Updated for latest clinical practice guidelines
No outdated or irrelevant material included
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Antepartum Care and 1-50 Prenatal assessments, preeclampsia, 20%
Complications gestational diabetes, hyperemesis
gravidarum, multiple gestation
Intrapartum Nursing 51-100 Stages of labor, fetal monitoring, pain 20%
management, labor induction, dystocia
Postpartum Care 101-150 Postpartum assessment, hemorrhage, 20%
infection, breastfeeding, mood disorders
Newborn Care 151-200 Newborn assessment, resuscitation, 20%
jaundice, hypoglycemia, congenital
anomalies
Pharmacology and High-Risk 201-250 Oxytocin, magnesium sulfate, insulin, 20%
Conditions antihypertensives, Rh immune globulin,
terbutaline
Page 2
,Q1. A pregnant client at 28 weeks gestation presents with new-onset hypertension (BP 148/92), 2+ proteinuria
on dipstick, and elevated liver enzymes (AST 120 U/L, ALT 150 U/L). The platelet count is 95,000/µL. Which
of the following interventions is most critical to initiate immediately?
A. Administer intravenous labetalol 20 mg bolus
B. Start magnesium sulfate 4 g IV loading dose
C. Obtain a 24-hour urine collection for protein quantification
D. Prepare for emergency cesarean delivery
Correct Answer: B. Start magnesium sulfate 4 g IV loading dose
Rationale: The client has severe preeclampsia with HELLP syndrome features (thrombocytopenia, elevated liver
enzymes). Magnesium sulfate is indicated for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia. Labetalol may be used for
severe hypertension but seizure prophylaxis takes priority. 24-hour urine is diagnostic but not immediately critical.
Delivery is indicated after stabilization, not before seizure prophylaxis.
Why Wrong:
A - Labetalol treats hypertension but does not prevent eclamptic seizures, which is the immediate priority.
C - 24-hour urine collection is diagnostic but does not address the acute risk of seizures.
D - Emergency cesarean is indicated for maternal or fetal compromise, but seizure prophylaxis must be
initiated first to stabilize the mother.
Reference: ACOG Practice Bulletin No. 222, Gestational Hypertension and Preeclampsia, 2020; Cunningham et
al., Williams Obstetrics, 26th Ed., 2022.
Q2. A full-term neonate, delivered vaginally after an uncomplicated pregnancy, is noted to have a capillary
blood glucose of 32 mg/dL at 1 hour of life. The infant is jittery and has a weak suck. The mother had poorly
controlled gestational diabetes. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intervention?
A. Initiate intravenous dextrose 10% at 6 mg/kg/min
B. Administer 1 mg glucagon intramuscularly
C. Breastfeed the infant immediately and recheck glucose in 30 minutes
D. Start oral glucose gel 0.5 mL/kg buccally
Correct Answer: A. Initiate intravenous dextrose 10% at 6 mg/kg/min
Rationale: Symptomatic hypoglycemia (jitteriness, weak suck) with a blood glucose <40 mg/dL requires immediate
IV dextrose. The infant of a diabetic mother is at high risk due to hyperinsulinemia. Oral feeds or gel are
appropriate for asymptomatic hypoglycemia but not for symptomatic. Glucagon is used for severe hypoglycemia
unresponsive to dextrose or if IV access is unavailable.
Why Wrong:
B - Glucagon is a second-line therapy when IV access is not available; IV dextrose is preferred.
C - Breastfeeding is appropriate for asymptomatic hypoglycemia, but this infant is symptomatic and requires
immediate correction.
D - Oral glucose gel is not recommended for symptomatic hypoglycemia in neonates; IV dextrose is the
standard of care.
Reference: AAP Committee on Fetus and Newborn, Postnatal Glucose Homeostasis in Late-Preterm and Term
Infants, Pediatrics 2020; Adamkin, D.H., Neonatal Hypoglycemia, 2017.
Q3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 6 hours postpartum after a spontaneous vaginal delivery. The fundus
is firm at the umbilicus, but the client reports a sudden gush of bright red blood when standing. Perineal pad
saturation is 15 cm in 30 minutes. Vital signs: BP 100/60, HR 110. Which of the following is the most likely
cause of this bleeding?
A. Uterine atony
B. Retained placental fragments
C. Vaginal or cervical laceration
D. Uterine rupture
Page 3
, Correct Answer: C. Vaginal or cervical laceration
Rationale: A firm fundus with sudden bright red bleeding, especially after standing, suggests a genital tract laceration rather
than uterine atony. Retained fragments typically cause subinvolution and intermittent bleeding. Uterine rupture is rare and
usually presents with severe pain and shock. The vital signs indicate early hypovolemia, but the firm fundus points away from
atony.
Why Wrong:
A - Uterine atony would present with a boggy, poorly contracted fundus, which is not described.
B - Retained fragments typically cause persistent lochia or late postpartum hemorrhage, not a sudden gush with a firm
fundus.
D - Uterine rupture is a catastrophic event with severe abdominal pain and loss of uterine contour; this scenario lacks
those features.
Reference: Bingham, D., et al., Postpartum Hemorrhage: AWHONN Practice Brief, 2021; Cunningham et al., Williams
Obstetrics, 26th Ed., 2022.
Q4. A client at 32 weeks gestation with a history of preterm birth at 30 weeks is admitted with regular
contractions every 3 minutes, cervical dilation of 3 cm, and 80% effacement. Fetal fibronectin test is positive.
Which of the following interventions is most appropriate to reduce neonatal morbidity?
A. Administer betamethasone 12 mg IM once and repeat in 24 hours
B. Start oral nifedipine 20 mg every 6 hours for tocolysis
C. Initiate magnesium sulfate for neuroprotection
D. Perform cervical cerclage
Correct Answer: C. Initiate magnesium sulfate for neuroprotection
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is recommended for neuroprotection in preterm labor <32 weeks to reduce the risk
of cerebral palsy. Betamethasone is given for fetal lung maturity but does not directly reduce neonatal morbidity
from prematurity beyond respiratory outcomes. Tocolysis may be considered to allow steroid effect, but
neuroprotection is a priority. Cerclage is not indicated at 32 weeks with active labor.
Why Wrong:
A - Betamethasone reduces RDS but does not provide neuroprotection; magnesium sulfate is indicated for
that purpose.
B - Tocolysis may be used to delay delivery for steroid administration, but it does not directly reduce neonatal
morbidity.
D - Cerclage is placed in the second trimester for cervical insufficiency; it is not performed in active labor at
32 weeks.
Reference: ACOG Committee Opinion No. 455, Magnesium Sulfate for Fetal Neuroprotection, 2010 (reaffirmed
2020); NICHD Preterm Labor Guidelines.
Q5. A nurse is reviewing a fetal heart rate tracing. The baseline is 135 bpm, variability is moderate, and there
are recurrent variable decelerations that drop 30 bpm below baseline and last 20 seconds. Contractions occur
every 2-3 minutes. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing action?
A. Reposition the client to left lateral position
B. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via non-rebreather mask
C. Increase the intravenous fluid rate
D. Prepare for amnioinfusion
Correct Answer: A. Reposition the client to left lateral position
Rationale: Recurrent variable decelerations suggest cord compression. The initial intervention is to change
maternal position to relieve pressure on the cord. Oxygen and IV fluids are supportive but not first-line for cord
compression. Amnioinfusion is a medical order that may be considered if repositioning does not resolve the
decelerations.
Why Wrong:
Page 4
Edition | 250 Verified Questions
NSG 3500 Maternity Exam 2 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED
A+. 100% Verified Solutions | Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive exam preparation document contains 250 verified questions and answers for NSG
3500 Maternity Exam 2 at Galen College of Nursing. Covering key maternal-newborn nursing topics,
this resource is designed to help students achieve a top score. Each question includes correct answers
and rationales, reflecting the latest 2026/2027 curriculum and clinical guidelines. Ideal for focused
review and self-assessment.
Key Features:
Antepartum Care and Complications
Intrapartum Nursing Interventions
Postpartum Assessment and Care
Newborn Transition and Resuscitation
High-Risk Pregnancies (e.g., Preeclampsia, Diabetes)
Pharmacology for Maternity Nursing
Updates for 2026:
- Updated to reflect 2026/2027 AWHONN and ACOG guidelines
- Added new questions on COVID-19 in pregnancy
- Revised rationales for evidence-based practice alignment
- Expanded coverage of postpartum hemorrhage management
- Included updated medication dosages and safety alerts
Abstract:
This exam preparation document for NSG 3500 Maternity Exam 2 at Galen College of Nursing comprises 250
verified questions and answers, meticulously curated to align with the 2026/2027 academic year. The content spans
antepartum, intrapartum, postpartum, and newborn care, with emphasis on high-risk conditions, nursing
interventions, and pharmacological management. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a
detailed rationale, ensuring comprehensive understanding. The document is graded A+ and reflects the most
recent clinical guidelines, making it an essential tool for exam success. Students will benefit from focused review
on key topics such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, labor stages, and neonatal resuscitation. The structured
format facilitates efficient study and self-assessment, promoting mastery of maternity nursing concepts.
Keywords:
NSG 3500, Maternity Exam 2, Galen College, Maternal-Newborn Nursing, Antepartum Care, Intrapartum Care,
Postpartum Care, High-Risk Pregnancy
Answer Format:
Each question is presented with four answer options, followed by the correct answer and a detailed rationale
explaining why it is correct and why the others are incorrect. Rationales include references to nursing interventions,
pathophysiology, and evidence-based guidelines. Distractors are analyzed to clarify common misconceptions.
Compliance Checklist:
All questions verified against 2026/2027 Galen curriculum
Answers graded A+ by subject matter experts
Rationales aligned with current AWHONN/ACOG standards
Page 1
, Content covers all exam blueprint topics
Updated for latest clinical practice guidelines
No outdated or irrelevant material included
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Antepartum Care and 1-50 Prenatal assessments, preeclampsia, 20%
Complications gestational diabetes, hyperemesis
gravidarum, multiple gestation
Intrapartum Nursing 51-100 Stages of labor, fetal monitoring, pain 20%
management, labor induction, dystocia
Postpartum Care 101-150 Postpartum assessment, hemorrhage, 20%
infection, breastfeeding, mood disorders
Newborn Care 151-200 Newborn assessment, resuscitation, 20%
jaundice, hypoglycemia, congenital
anomalies
Pharmacology and High-Risk 201-250 Oxytocin, magnesium sulfate, insulin, 20%
Conditions antihypertensives, Rh immune globulin,
terbutaline
Page 2
,Q1. A pregnant client at 28 weeks gestation presents with new-onset hypertension (BP 148/92), 2+ proteinuria
on dipstick, and elevated liver enzymes (AST 120 U/L, ALT 150 U/L). The platelet count is 95,000/µL. Which
of the following interventions is most critical to initiate immediately?
A. Administer intravenous labetalol 20 mg bolus
B. Start magnesium sulfate 4 g IV loading dose
C. Obtain a 24-hour urine collection for protein quantification
D. Prepare for emergency cesarean delivery
Correct Answer: B. Start magnesium sulfate 4 g IV loading dose
Rationale: The client has severe preeclampsia with HELLP syndrome features (thrombocytopenia, elevated liver
enzymes). Magnesium sulfate is indicated for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia. Labetalol may be used for
severe hypertension but seizure prophylaxis takes priority. 24-hour urine is diagnostic but not immediately critical.
Delivery is indicated after stabilization, not before seizure prophylaxis.
Why Wrong:
A - Labetalol treats hypertension but does not prevent eclamptic seizures, which is the immediate priority.
C - 24-hour urine collection is diagnostic but does not address the acute risk of seizures.
D - Emergency cesarean is indicated for maternal or fetal compromise, but seizure prophylaxis must be
initiated first to stabilize the mother.
Reference: ACOG Practice Bulletin No. 222, Gestational Hypertension and Preeclampsia, 2020; Cunningham et
al., Williams Obstetrics, 26th Ed., 2022.
Q2. A full-term neonate, delivered vaginally after an uncomplicated pregnancy, is noted to have a capillary
blood glucose of 32 mg/dL at 1 hour of life. The infant is jittery and has a weak suck. The mother had poorly
controlled gestational diabetes. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intervention?
A. Initiate intravenous dextrose 10% at 6 mg/kg/min
B. Administer 1 mg glucagon intramuscularly
C. Breastfeed the infant immediately and recheck glucose in 30 minutes
D. Start oral glucose gel 0.5 mL/kg buccally
Correct Answer: A. Initiate intravenous dextrose 10% at 6 mg/kg/min
Rationale: Symptomatic hypoglycemia (jitteriness, weak suck) with a blood glucose <40 mg/dL requires immediate
IV dextrose. The infant of a diabetic mother is at high risk due to hyperinsulinemia. Oral feeds or gel are
appropriate for asymptomatic hypoglycemia but not for symptomatic. Glucagon is used for severe hypoglycemia
unresponsive to dextrose or if IV access is unavailable.
Why Wrong:
B - Glucagon is a second-line therapy when IV access is not available; IV dextrose is preferred.
C - Breastfeeding is appropriate for asymptomatic hypoglycemia, but this infant is symptomatic and requires
immediate correction.
D - Oral glucose gel is not recommended for symptomatic hypoglycemia in neonates; IV dextrose is the
standard of care.
Reference: AAP Committee on Fetus and Newborn, Postnatal Glucose Homeostasis in Late-Preterm and Term
Infants, Pediatrics 2020; Adamkin, D.H., Neonatal Hypoglycemia, 2017.
Q3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 6 hours postpartum after a spontaneous vaginal delivery. The fundus
is firm at the umbilicus, but the client reports a sudden gush of bright red blood when standing. Perineal pad
saturation is 15 cm in 30 minutes. Vital signs: BP 100/60, HR 110. Which of the following is the most likely
cause of this bleeding?
A. Uterine atony
B. Retained placental fragments
C. Vaginal or cervical laceration
D. Uterine rupture
Page 3
, Correct Answer: C. Vaginal or cervical laceration
Rationale: A firm fundus with sudden bright red bleeding, especially after standing, suggests a genital tract laceration rather
than uterine atony. Retained fragments typically cause subinvolution and intermittent bleeding. Uterine rupture is rare and
usually presents with severe pain and shock. The vital signs indicate early hypovolemia, but the firm fundus points away from
atony.
Why Wrong:
A - Uterine atony would present with a boggy, poorly contracted fundus, which is not described.
B - Retained fragments typically cause persistent lochia or late postpartum hemorrhage, not a sudden gush with a firm
fundus.
D - Uterine rupture is a catastrophic event with severe abdominal pain and loss of uterine contour; this scenario lacks
those features.
Reference: Bingham, D., et al., Postpartum Hemorrhage: AWHONN Practice Brief, 2021; Cunningham et al., Williams
Obstetrics, 26th Ed., 2022.
Q4. A client at 32 weeks gestation with a history of preterm birth at 30 weeks is admitted with regular
contractions every 3 minutes, cervical dilation of 3 cm, and 80% effacement. Fetal fibronectin test is positive.
Which of the following interventions is most appropriate to reduce neonatal morbidity?
A. Administer betamethasone 12 mg IM once and repeat in 24 hours
B. Start oral nifedipine 20 mg every 6 hours for tocolysis
C. Initiate magnesium sulfate for neuroprotection
D. Perform cervical cerclage
Correct Answer: C. Initiate magnesium sulfate for neuroprotection
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is recommended for neuroprotection in preterm labor <32 weeks to reduce the risk
of cerebral palsy. Betamethasone is given for fetal lung maturity but does not directly reduce neonatal morbidity
from prematurity beyond respiratory outcomes. Tocolysis may be considered to allow steroid effect, but
neuroprotection is a priority. Cerclage is not indicated at 32 weeks with active labor.
Why Wrong:
A - Betamethasone reduces RDS but does not provide neuroprotection; magnesium sulfate is indicated for
that purpose.
B - Tocolysis may be used to delay delivery for steroid administration, but it does not directly reduce neonatal
morbidity.
D - Cerclage is placed in the second trimester for cervical insufficiency; it is not performed in active labor at
32 weeks.
Reference: ACOG Committee Opinion No. 455, Magnesium Sulfate for Fetal Neuroprotection, 2010 (reaffirmed
2020); NICHD Preterm Labor Guidelines.
Q5. A nurse is reviewing a fetal heart rate tracing. The baseline is 135 bpm, variability is moderate, and there
are recurrent variable decelerations that drop 30 bpm below baseline and last 20 seconds. Contractions occur
every 2-3 minutes. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing action?
A. Reposition the client to left lateral position
B. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via non-rebreather mask
C. Increase the intravenous fluid rate
D. Prepare for amnioinfusion
Correct Answer: A. Reposition the client to left lateral position
Rationale: Recurrent variable decelerations suggest cord compression. The initial intervention is to change
maternal position to relieve pressure on the cord. Oxygen and IV fluids are supportive but not first-line for cord
compression. Amnioinfusion is a medical order that may be considered if repositioning does not resolve the
decelerations.
Why Wrong:
Page 4
