Rasmussen Univ NUR 2063 Final Exam (pdf) | 2026/2027 |
Pathophysiology Q&A | Pathophysiology
**1. What is the primary function of mitochondria in eukaryotic cells?**
A) Protein synthesis and modification
B) Lipid synthesis and hormone production
C) ATP production through cellular respiration
D) Digestion of cellular debris and pathogens
Correct Answer: C) ATP production through cellular respiration
Rationale: Mitochondria are the "powerhouses" of the cell, responsible for
generating adenosine triphosphate (ATP) through cellular respiration. They
are abundant in energy-demanding tissues such as muscle and brain.
**2. Which organelle is known as the control center of the cell because it
stores DNA and genes?**
A) Ribosome
B) Nucleus
C) Mitochondria
D) Golgi apparatus
Correct Answer: B) Nucleus
Rationale: The nucleus is the control center of the cell, where DNA and genes
are stored. It produces mRNA to help build body proteins and regulates
cellular activities.
**3. Which of the following best describes the function of ribosomes?**
A) They produce ATP for cellular energy.
,B) They synthesize proteins through transcription and translation.
C) They break down and digest dead cells and organelles.
D) They modify and package proteins for transport.
Correct Answer: B) They synthesize proteins through transcription and
translation.
Rationale: Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis. They produce
RNA to create proteins through the transcription of DNA and translation of
RNA into a protein. They can be free-floating or attached to the rough
endoplasmic reticulum.
**4. A nurse observes a patient's skin rash and measures their blood
pressure. These are examples of:**
A) Symptoms
B) Subjective data
C) Signs
D) Idiopathic findings
Correct Answer: C) Signs
Rationale: Signs are objective evidence of disease that can be observed or
measured by the examiner. A rash and a blood pressure reading are both
observable and measurable, making them signs rather than symptoms.
**5. A patient reports feeling nauseated and dizzy. These findings are best
classified as:**
A) Signs
B) Symptoms
,C) Objective data
D) Laboratory results
Correct Answer: B) Symptoms
Rationale: Symptoms are subjective feelings of abnormality reported by the
patient. Nausea and dizziness cannot be directly observed or measured by
others.
**6. What is the term for a disease with an unknown cause?**
A) Iatrogenic
B) Nosocomial
C) Idiopathic
D) Congenital
Correct Answer: C) Idiopathic
Rationale: Idiopathic conditions have an unknown origin or cause. Iatrogenic
causes are unintended consequences of medical interventions, and
congenital diseases are present at birth.
**7. Which of the following is an example of primary prevention?**
A) Performing a PAP smear for cervical cancer screening
B) Administering a vaccination for influenza
C) Providing rehabilitation after a stroke
D) Monitoring blood glucose in a patient with diabetes
Correct Answer: B) Administering a vaccination for influenza
, Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs
through measures such as vaccination and health promotion. Screening
(secondary) and rehabilitation (tertiary) are later interventions.
**8. A PAP smear for cervical cancer screening is an example of which level
of prevention?**
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Quaternary prevention
Correct Answer: B) Secondary prevention
Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and screening to
catch disease before it progresses. PAP smears and mammograms are classic
examples of secondary prevention.
**9. Rehabilitation after a stroke to prevent pressure ulcers and contractures
is an example of:**
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Quaternary prevention
Correct Answer: C) Tertiary prevention
Pathophysiology Q&A | Pathophysiology
**1. What is the primary function of mitochondria in eukaryotic cells?**
A) Protein synthesis and modification
B) Lipid synthesis and hormone production
C) ATP production through cellular respiration
D) Digestion of cellular debris and pathogens
Correct Answer: C) ATP production through cellular respiration
Rationale: Mitochondria are the "powerhouses" of the cell, responsible for
generating adenosine triphosphate (ATP) through cellular respiration. They
are abundant in energy-demanding tissues such as muscle and brain.
**2. Which organelle is known as the control center of the cell because it
stores DNA and genes?**
A) Ribosome
B) Nucleus
C) Mitochondria
D) Golgi apparatus
Correct Answer: B) Nucleus
Rationale: The nucleus is the control center of the cell, where DNA and genes
are stored. It produces mRNA to help build body proteins and regulates
cellular activities.
**3. Which of the following best describes the function of ribosomes?**
A) They produce ATP for cellular energy.
,B) They synthesize proteins through transcription and translation.
C) They break down and digest dead cells and organelles.
D) They modify and package proteins for transport.
Correct Answer: B) They synthesize proteins through transcription and
translation.
Rationale: Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis. They produce
RNA to create proteins through the transcription of DNA and translation of
RNA into a protein. They can be free-floating or attached to the rough
endoplasmic reticulum.
**4. A nurse observes a patient's skin rash and measures their blood
pressure. These are examples of:**
A) Symptoms
B) Subjective data
C) Signs
D) Idiopathic findings
Correct Answer: C) Signs
Rationale: Signs are objective evidence of disease that can be observed or
measured by the examiner. A rash and a blood pressure reading are both
observable and measurable, making them signs rather than symptoms.
**5. A patient reports feeling nauseated and dizzy. These findings are best
classified as:**
A) Signs
B) Symptoms
,C) Objective data
D) Laboratory results
Correct Answer: B) Symptoms
Rationale: Symptoms are subjective feelings of abnormality reported by the
patient. Nausea and dizziness cannot be directly observed or measured by
others.
**6. What is the term for a disease with an unknown cause?**
A) Iatrogenic
B) Nosocomial
C) Idiopathic
D) Congenital
Correct Answer: C) Idiopathic
Rationale: Idiopathic conditions have an unknown origin or cause. Iatrogenic
causes are unintended consequences of medical interventions, and
congenital diseases are present at birth.
**7. Which of the following is an example of primary prevention?**
A) Performing a PAP smear for cervical cancer screening
B) Administering a vaccination for influenza
C) Providing rehabilitation after a stroke
D) Monitoring blood glucose in a patient with diabetes
Correct Answer: B) Administering a vaccination for influenza
, Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs
through measures such as vaccination and health promotion. Screening
(secondary) and rehabilitation (tertiary) are later interventions.
**8. A PAP smear for cervical cancer screening is an example of which level
of prevention?**
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Quaternary prevention
Correct Answer: B) Secondary prevention
Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and screening to
catch disease before it progresses. PAP smears and mammograms are classic
examples of secondary prevention.
**9. Rehabilitation after a stroke to prevent pressure ulcers and contractures
is an example of:**
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Quaternary prevention
Correct Answer: C) Tertiary prevention
