AORN Periop 101 Final Exam Actual Exam 2026/2027 – Comprehensive
Perioperative Nursing Assessment with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Section 1: Perioperative Nursing Foundations & Patient Safety
Q1: The circulating nurse is preparing a patient for surgery. According to the Universal
Protocol, which three components must be completed before the incision is made?
A. Patient identification, allergy verification, and anesthesia consent
B. Site marking, surgical timeout, and preoperative antibiotics
C. Correct patient verification, correct procedure verification, and correct site verification
[CORRECT]
D. Family notification, blood type confirmation, and DNR status review
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Universal Protocol (Joint Commission) mandates verification of the
correct patient, correct procedure, and correct site before every invasive procedure. A
includes important elements but not the three core components. B includes site
marking and timeout but these are methods to achieve verification, not the core
components themselves. D includes important preoperative considerations but not
Universal Protocol requirements.
Q2: During the surgical timeout, the circulating nurse notices that the surgical site is
marked on the patient's left leg, but the consent form indicates a right leg procedure.
What is the priority action?
A. Proceed with the timeout and clarify with the surgeon after the procedure
,B. Stop the procedure, notify the surgeon immediately, and do not proceed until the
discrepancy is resolved [CORRECT]
C. Ask the patient to confirm which leg is correct
D. Remove the mark and remark the right leg without consulting the surgeon
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Any discrepancy between the marked site and the consent form is a "never
event" risk. The procedure must be halted immediately until the surgeon resolves the
discrepancy. A risks wrong-site surgery. C places responsibility on the patient, who may
be sedated or confused. D is outside the nurse's scope and does not resolve the
underlying issue.
Q3: A patient with a known latex allergy is scheduled for surgery. Which action is most
appropriate for the perioperative team?
A. Use latex gloves only for the surgical team, as patient contact is minimal
B. Create a latex-safe environment by removing all latex-containing products from the
operating room and using latex-free alternatives [CORRECT]
C. Administer prophylactic antibiotics to prevent allergic reaction
D. Use latex products but monitor the patient closely for reactions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Latex allergies can cause severe anaphylaxis. AORN standards require a
completely latex-safe environment for latex-allergic patients, including gloves, drains,
catheters, and anesthesia equipment. A and D expose the patient to the allergen. C is
inappropriate because antibiotics do not prevent allergic reactions.
Q4: The circulating nurse is assessing a patient in the preoperative holding area. Which
finding requires immediate notification of the anesthesia provider before proceeding to
the OR?
,A. The patient reports anxiety about the surgery
B. The patient ate a light breakfast 2 hours ago despite NPO instructions [CORRECT]
C. The patient has a small bruise on the hand from the IV insertion
D. The patient requests a different flavor of mouth rinse
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A full stomach significantly increases aspiration risk during anesthesia
induction. The anesthesia provider must be notified immediately to assess risk and
potentially delay surgery. A is expected and manageable. C is a minor issue. D is
irrelevant to surgical safety.
Q5: During a surgical procedure, the scrub nurse accidentally drops a sterile instrument
on the floor. What is the correct action?
A. Pick up the instrument, wipe it with sterile saline, and return it to the sterile field
B. Leave the instrument on the floor and continue the procedure
C. Remove the instrument from the room, replace it with a sterile substitute, and
document the event [CORRECT]
D. Rinse the instrument in the scrub sink and return it to the sterile field
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Once an instrument leaves the sterile field and contacts a non-sterile surface
(floor), it is considered contaminated and must be removed. A, B, and D all violate sterile
technique principles and risk surgical site infection.
Q6: The perioperative nurse is preparing a patient with a history of obstructive sleep
apnea (OSA) for general anesthesia. Which consideration is most important?
A. The patient should be extubated immediately after surgery in the OR
B. The patient is at increased risk for airway obstruction post-extubation and requires
careful monitoring and possible delayed extubation [CORRECT]
, C. OSA has no impact on anesthesia management
D. The patient should receive half the normal dose of anesthesia medications
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: OSA patients have increased risk of airway collapse, hypoventilation, and
desaturation during emergence and recovery. A is dangerous. C is incorrect—OSA
significantly impacts anesthesia management. D is incorrect because anesthesia
dosing is based on patient factors, not simply halved.
Q7: A patient arrives in the OR with jewelry including a wedding ring and a body piercing
in the navel. Which action is correct?
A. Allow the patient to keep the jewelry since it is sentimental
B. Remove all jewelry and body piercings before surgery to prevent electrical burns,
pressure injuries, and airway risks [CORRECT]
C. Cover the jewelry with tape to secure it during surgery
D. Remove only metal jewelry but allow plastic piercings to remain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: All jewelry and piercings must be removed before surgery to prevent
electrosurgical burns (metal conducts current), pressure injuries, and airway obstruction
risks (tongue piercings). A, C, and D all leave the patient at risk for preventable injury.
Q8: The circulating nurse is managing the OR environment. Which temperature and
humidity range is recommended by AORN guidelines?
A. Temperature 60-65°F, humidity 20-30%
B. Temperature 68-73°F, humidity 30-60% [CORRECT]
C. Temperature 75-80°F, humidity 10-20%
D. Temperature 65-70°F, humidity 70-80%
Perioperative Nursing Assessment with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Section 1: Perioperative Nursing Foundations & Patient Safety
Q1: The circulating nurse is preparing a patient for surgery. According to the Universal
Protocol, which three components must be completed before the incision is made?
A. Patient identification, allergy verification, and anesthesia consent
B. Site marking, surgical timeout, and preoperative antibiotics
C. Correct patient verification, correct procedure verification, and correct site verification
[CORRECT]
D. Family notification, blood type confirmation, and DNR status review
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Universal Protocol (Joint Commission) mandates verification of the
correct patient, correct procedure, and correct site before every invasive procedure. A
includes important elements but not the three core components. B includes site
marking and timeout but these are methods to achieve verification, not the core
components themselves. D includes important preoperative considerations but not
Universal Protocol requirements.
Q2: During the surgical timeout, the circulating nurse notices that the surgical site is
marked on the patient's left leg, but the consent form indicates a right leg procedure.
What is the priority action?
A. Proceed with the timeout and clarify with the surgeon after the procedure
,B. Stop the procedure, notify the surgeon immediately, and do not proceed until the
discrepancy is resolved [CORRECT]
C. Ask the patient to confirm which leg is correct
D. Remove the mark and remark the right leg without consulting the surgeon
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Any discrepancy between the marked site and the consent form is a "never
event" risk. The procedure must be halted immediately until the surgeon resolves the
discrepancy. A risks wrong-site surgery. C places responsibility on the patient, who may
be sedated or confused. D is outside the nurse's scope and does not resolve the
underlying issue.
Q3: A patient with a known latex allergy is scheduled for surgery. Which action is most
appropriate for the perioperative team?
A. Use latex gloves only for the surgical team, as patient contact is minimal
B. Create a latex-safe environment by removing all latex-containing products from the
operating room and using latex-free alternatives [CORRECT]
C. Administer prophylactic antibiotics to prevent allergic reaction
D. Use latex products but monitor the patient closely for reactions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Latex allergies can cause severe anaphylaxis. AORN standards require a
completely latex-safe environment for latex-allergic patients, including gloves, drains,
catheters, and anesthesia equipment. A and D expose the patient to the allergen. C is
inappropriate because antibiotics do not prevent allergic reactions.
Q4: The circulating nurse is assessing a patient in the preoperative holding area. Which
finding requires immediate notification of the anesthesia provider before proceeding to
the OR?
,A. The patient reports anxiety about the surgery
B. The patient ate a light breakfast 2 hours ago despite NPO instructions [CORRECT]
C. The patient has a small bruise on the hand from the IV insertion
D. The patient requests a different flavor of mouth rinse
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A full stomach significantly increases aspiration risk during anesthesia
induction. The anesthesia provider must be notified immediately to assess risk and
potentially delay surgery. A is expected and manageable. C is a minor issue. D is
irrelevant to surgical safety.
Q5: During a surgical procedure, the scrub nurse accidentally drops a sterile instrument
on the floor. What is the correct action?
A. Pick up the instrument, wipe it with sterile saline, and return it to the sterile field
B. Leave the instrument on the floor and continue the procedure
C. Remove the instrument from the room, replace it with a sterile substitute, and
document the event [CORRECT]
D. Rinse the instrument in the scrub sink and return it to the sterile field
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Once an instrument leaves the sterile field and contacts a non-sterile surface
(floor), it is considered contaminated and must be removed. A, B, and D all violate sterile
technique principles and risk surgical site infection.
Q6: The perioperative nurse is preparing a patient with a history of obstructive sleep
apnea (OSA) for general anesthesia. Which consideration is most important?
A. The patient should be extubated immediately after surgery in the OR
B. The patient is at increased risk for airway obstruction post-extubation and requires
careful monitoring and possible delayed extubation [CORRECT]
, C. OSA has no impact on anesthesia management
D. The patient should receive half the normal dose of anesthesia medications
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: OSA patients have increased risk of airway collapse, hypoventilation, and
desaturation during emergence and recovery. A is dangerous. C is incorrect—OSA
significantly impacts anesthesia management. D is incorrect because anesthesia
dosing is based on patient factors, not simply halved.
Q7: A patient arrives in the OR with jewelry including a wedding ring and a body piercing
in the navel. Which action is correct?
A. Allow the patient to keep the jewelry since it is sentimental
B. Remove all jewelry and body piercings before surgery to prevent electrical burns,
pressure injuries, and airway risks [CORRECT]
C. Cover the jewelry with tape to secure it during surgery
D. Remove only metal jewelry but allow plastic piercings to remain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: All jewelry and piercings must be removed before surgery to prevent
electrosurgical burns (metal conducts current), pressure injuries, and airway obstruction
risks (tongue piercings). A, C, and D all leave the patient at risk for preventable injury.
Q8: The circulating nurse is managing the OR environment. Which temperature and
humidity range is recommended by AORN guidelines?
A. Temperature 60-65°F, humidity 20-30%
B. Temperature 68-73°F, humidity 30-60% [CORRECT]
C. Temperature 75-80°F, humidity 10-20%
D. Temperature 65-70°F, humidity 70-80%
