ATI PN FUNDAMENTALS COMPREHENSIVE
PROCTORED EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES LATEST EXAM UPDATE
GRADED A+
The questions cover Safety & Infection Control, Basic Care & Comfort, Health Promotion,
Psychosocial Integrity, Pharmacology, and Physiological Integrity.
1. A nurse is teaching a client about using a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump.
Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
A. “I will ask my wife to push the button if I am sleeping.”
B. “I can press the button every 10 minutes as needed.”
C. “The pump will deliver a continuous amount of medication even if I don’t press.”
D. “I should not press the button if my pain is below a 4 on a 0-10 scale.”
Answer: B
*Rationale: PCA pumps have a programmed lockout interval (e.g., 10 minutes). The client should
be the only one to press the button. Not all PCA pumps have a continuous basal rate; many are
demand-only. Pain control is based on client need, not a specific number.*
2. A nurse is repositioning a client who is immobile. Which of the following actions should
the nurse take to prevent musculoskeletal injury? A. Twist at the waist while pulling the
client up.
B. Keep feet close together for balance.
C. Use a draw sheet to slide the client.
D. Lift the client from under the arms.
Answer: C
,Rationale: Using a draw sheet or friction-reducing device reduces shear and protects the nurse’s
back. The nurse should keep feet shoulder-width apart, avoid twisting, and use leg muscles, not
back muscles.
3. A nurse is reviewing a client’s medication administration record. Which of the
following prescriptions requires clarification? A. Furosemide 40 mg PO BID.
B. Enoxaparin 30 mg SUBQ daily.
C. Digoxin 0.125 mg PO daily.
D. Insulin regular 10 units U-500 per sliding scale.
Answer: D
*Rationale: U-500 insulin is five times more concentrated than U-100. Dosing in “units” without
specifying a U-500 syringe or clarification is a high-alert error risk. The prescription should
specify “U-500 insulin syringe” or give volume in mL.*
4. A nurse is performing a focused respiratory assessment on a client who is short of
breath. Which of the following is an expected finding? A. Respiratory rate of 28/min.
B. Use of accessory muscles.
C. Symmetrical chest expansion.
D. Flattened neck veins.
Answer: C
Rationale: Symmetrical chest expansion is normal. Tachypnea (>20), accessory muscle use, and
neck vein distention (not flattened) are signs of respiratory distress.
5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new colostomy. Which of the
following food selections should the nurse recommend to reduce odor?
A. Eggs.
B. Yogurt.
C. Asparagus.
D. Fish.
Answer: B
,Rationale: Yogurt contains probiotics that can help reduce colostomy odor. Eggs, asparagus, and
fish are known to increase odor. Buttermilk and parsley are also odorreducing.
6. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a female client.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A.
Apply sterile gloves.
B. Lubricate the catheter tip.
C. Open the sterile catheter kit.
D. Perform hand hygiene.
Answer: D
Rationale: According to the infection control hierarchy, hand hygiene is always the first action
before any invasive procedure or sterile setup. Hand hygiene reduces the transmission of
microorganisms.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for wrist restraints. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take?
A. Tie the restraints to the side rail of the bed.
B. Remove the restraints every 2 hours.
C. Secure restraints with a quick-release knot.
D. Apply restraints over the client’s clothing.
Answer: C
*Rationale: Restraints must be secured with a quick-release knot to allow for rapid removal in an
emergency. Restraints should never be tied to a movable part like a side rail (tie to bed frame),
removed every 1-2 hours for ROM and toileting, and applied over clothing or padding to prevent
skin breakdown.*
8. A nurse is administering a cleansing enema to a client. The client reports
abdominal cramping. What should the nurse do? A. Stop the enema and remove the
tubing.
B. Lower the enema fluid container.
, C. Increase the flow rate to finish quickly.
D. Instruct the client to bear down.
Answer: B
Rationale: Lowering the enema container decreases the hydrostatic pressure and flow rate,
which often alleviates cramping. Stopping the enema is not necessary unless severe pain or other
complications occur.
9. A nurse is assessing a client’s peripheral IV site. Which finding indicates phlebitis?
A. Edema and coolness at the site.
B. Redness and a palpable venous cord.
C. Serous drainage from the insertion site.
D. Absence of blood return when flushing.
Answer: B
Rationale: Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein, presenting as redness, warmth, tenderness, and a
palpable venous cord. Edema with coolness suggests infiltration; serous drainage suggests
infection; no blood return may indicate occlusion or position.
10. A nurse is planning care for a client who is on contact precautions. Which of the
following items should the nurse remove from the client’s room? A. Disposable gloves.
B. Gowns.
C. Blood pressure cuff assigned to the client.
D. Fresh flowers.
Answer: D
Rationale: Fresh flowers and plants can harbor bacteria and are not allowed in rooms for clients
on isolation precautions due to infection risk. Dedicated equipment (BP cuff, stethoscope)
remains in the room.
PROCTORED EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES LATEST EXAM UPDATE
GRADED A+
The questions cover Safety & Infection Control, Basic Care & Comfort, Health Promotion,
Psychosocial Integrity, Pharmacology, and Physiological Integrity.
1. A nurse is teaching a client about using a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump.
Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
A. “I will ask my wife to push the button if I am sleeping.”
B. “I can press the button every 10 minutes as needed.”
C. “The pump will deliver a continuous amount of medication even if I don’t press.”
D. “I should not press the button if my pain is below a 4 on a 0-10 scale.”
Answer: B
*Rationale: PCA pumps have a programmed lockout interval (e.g., 10 minutes). The client should
be the only one to press the button. Not all PCA pumps have a continuous basal rate; many are
demand-only. Pain control is based on client need, not a specific number.*
2. A nurse is repositioning a client who is immobile. Which of the following actions should
the nurse take to prevent musculoskeletal injury? A. Twist at the waist while pulling the
client up.
B. Keep feet close together for balance.
C. Use a draw sheet to slide the client.
D. Lift the client from under the arms.
Answer: C
,Rationale: Using a draw sheet or friction-reducing device reduces shear and protects the nurse’s
back. The nurse should keep feet shoulder-width apart, avoid twisting, and use leg muscles, not
back muscles.
3. A nurse is reviewing a client’s medication administration record. Which of the
following prescriptions requires clarification? A. Furosemide 40 mg PO BID.
B. Enoxaparin 30 mg SUBQ daily.
C. Digoxin 0.125 mg PO daily.
D. Insulin regular 10 units U-500 per sliding scale.
Answer: D
*Rationale: U-500 insulin is five times more concentrated than U-100. Dosing in “units” without
specifying a U-500 syringe or clarification is a high-alert error risk. The prescription should
specify “U-500 insulin syringe” or give volume in mL.*
4. A nurse is performing a focused respiratory assessment on a client who is short of
breath. Which of the following is an expected finding? A. Respiratory rate of 28/min.
B. Use of accessory muscles.
C. Symmetrical chest expansion.
D. Flattened neck veins.
Answer: C
Rationale: Symmetrical chest expansion is normal. Tachypnea (>20), accessory muscle use, and
neck vein distention (not flattened) are signs of respiratory distress.
5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new colostomy. Which of the
following food selections should the nurse recommend to reduce odor?
A. Eggs.
B. Yogurt.
C. Asparagus.
D. Fish.
Answer: B
,Rationale: Yogurt contains probiotics that can help reduce colostomy odor. Eggs, asparagus, and
fish are known to increase odor. Buttermilk and parsley are also odorreducing.
6. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a female client.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A.
Apply sterile gloves.
B. Lubricate the catheter tip.
C. Open the sterile catheter kit.
D. Perform hand hygiene.
Answer: D
Rationale: According to the infection control hierarchy, hand hygiene is always the first action
before any invasive procedure or sterile setup. Hand hygiene reduces the transmission of
microorganisms.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for wrist restraints. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take?
A. Tie the restraints to the side rail of the bed.
B. Remove the restraints every 2 hours.
C. Secure restraints with a quick-release knot.
D. Apply restraints over the client’s clothing.
Answer: C
*Rationale: Restraints must be secured with a quick-release knot to allow for rapid removal in an
emergency. Restraints should never be tied to a movable part like a side rail (tie to bed frame),
removed every 1-2 hours for ROM and toileting, and applied over clothing or padding to prevent
skin breakdown.*
8. A nurse is administering a cleansing enema to a client. The client reports
abdominal cramping. What should the nurse do? A. Stop the enema and remove the
tubing.
B. Lower the enema fluid container.
, C. Increase the flow rate to finish quickly.
D. Instruct the client to bear down.
Answer: B
Rationale: Lowering the enema container decreases the hydrostatic pressure and flow rate,
which often alleviates cramping. Stopping the enema is not necessary unless severe pain or other
complications occur.
9. A nurse is assessing a client’s peripheral IV site. Which finding indicates phlebitis?
A. Edema and coolness at the site.
B. Redness and a palpable venous cord.
C. Serous drainage from the insertion site.
D. Absence of blood return when flushing.
Answer: B
Rationale: Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein, presenting as redness, warmth, tenderness, and a
palpable venous cord. Edema with coolness suggests infiltration; serous drainage suggests
infection; no blood return may indicate occlusion or position.
10. A nurse is planning care for a client who is on contact precautions. Which of the
following items should the nurse remove from the client’s room? A. Disposable gloves.
B. Gowns.
C. Blood pressure cuff assigned to the client.
D. Fresh flowers.
Answer: D
Rationale: Fresh flowers and plants can harbor bacteria and are not allowed in rooms for clients
on isolation precautions due to infection risk. Dedicated equipment (BP cuff, stethoscope)
remains in the room.
