Family Nurse Practitioner NP
Assessment – Chamberlain College of
Nursing (2025/2026) – 100 Questions
with 100% Verified Correct Answers
Question 1
A 58-year-old male with a 30-pack-year smoking history presents with a
chronic cough producing blood-tinged sputum, unintentional weight loss
of 15 pounds over 3 months, and persistent right-sided chest pain. Chest
X-ray reveals a right hilar mass. Which of the following is the most
appropriate next step?
A) Order a CT-guided biopsy of the mass
B) Prescribe a course of antibiotics and re-evaluate in 2 weeks
C) Refer the patient for a PET-CT scan
D) Order a bronchoscopy with biopsy
,,,answer,,,: D) Order a bronchoscopy with biopsy
Rationale: This patient's presentation—hemoptysis, weight loss, chest
pain, and a hilar mass in a heavy smoker—is highly suspicious for lung
cancer. Bronchoscopy with biopsy is the gold standard for obtaining
tissue diagnosis of central lesions like a hilar mass. While CT-guided
biopsy (A) is appropriate for peripheral lesions, it is less suitable for
central hilar masses due to vascular structures. Antibiotics (B) would
delay diagnosis of a potentially malignant process. PET-CT (C) is useful
,for staging after a tissue diagnosis has been confirmed, not as the initial
diagnostic step.
Question 2
A 45-year-old female with a history of hypertension presents with a 3-
day history of severe, throbbing headache located in the right temporal
region, associated with jaw claudication and visual disturbances. She
reports tenderness when brushing her hair. Her erythrocyte
sedimentation rate (ESR) is 95 mm/hr and C-reactive protein (CRP) is
elevated. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial
management?
A) Prescribe sumatriptan for migraine relief
B) Start high-dose corticosteroids immediately
C) Order a temporal artery biopsy
D) Prescribe acetaminophen and schedule a follow-up in 1 week
,,,answer,,,: B) Start high-dose corticosteroids immediately
Rationale: This patient's presentation is classic for giant cell arteritis
(temporal arteritis)—unilateral temporal headache, jaw claudication,
visual disturbances, scalp tenderness, and markedly elevated
inflammatory markers. Temporal arteritis is a medical emergency
because it can cause irreversible blindness due to ischemic optic
neuropathy. High-dose corticosteroids should be started immediately to
prevent vision loss, even before biopsy confirmation. Temporal artery
biopsy (C) should be performed within 1–2 weeks of starting steroids,
but steroids should never be delayed for biopsy. Sumatriptan (A) is for
,migraine and would be inappropriate. Acetaminophen (D) provides no
disease-modifying benefit and delays life-saving treatment.
Question 3
A 32-year-old male presents with a 2-week history of intermittent,
crampy abdominal pain, bloating, and alternating diarrhea and
constipation. He reports that his symptoms improve with bowel
movements. He has no fever, weight loss, or blood in his stool. Physical
examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most
appropriate initial diagnostic approach?
A) Colonoscopy
B) Abdominal CT scan with contrast
C) Rome IV criteria-based clinical diagnosis
D) Stool culture and ova/parasite examination
,,,answer,,,: C) Rome IV criteria-based clinical diagnosis
Rationale: This patient's symptoms are consistent with irritable bowel
syndrome (IBS), a functional gastrointestinal disorder diagnosed using
the Rome IV criteria. These criteria require recurrent abdominal pain at
least 1 day per week in the last 3 months, associated with two or more
of: related to defecation, change in stool frequency, or change in stool
form. The absence of alarm features (fever, weight loss, hematochezia,
nocturnal symptoms) allows for a clinical diagnosis without immediate
invasive testing. Colonoscopy (A) and CT (B) are reserved for patients
with alarm features or age >50. Stool studies (D) are appropriate if
infectious etiology is suspected but are not the first step in the absence of
fever or bloody stools.
, Question 4
A 67-year-old female with a history of osteoporosis is brought to the
clinic by her daughter due to progressive memory loss over the past 2
years. The patient is unable to recall recent events, has difficulty finding
words, and has become socially withdrawn. She scores 21/30 on the
Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE). Which of the following is the
most appropriate next step in management?
A) Start donepezil and schedule a follow-up in 3 months
B) Order a non-contrast head CT and laboratory studies including TSH,
B12, and folate
C) Refer to a neurologist for further evaluation
D) Diagnose Alzheimer's disease and provide caregiver education
,,,answer,,,: B) Order a non-contrast head CT and laboratory
studies including TSH, B12, and folate
Rationale: Before diagnosing Alzheimer's disease or other dementias, it
is essential to rule out reversible causes of cognitive impairment. The
American Academy of Neurology recommends neuroimaging (non-
contrast head CT or MRI) and laboratory studies including thyroid
function (TSH), vitamin B12, and folate levels in the initial evaluation of
dementia. While donepezil (A) may be appropriate after a diagnosis is
confirmed, starting it before ruling out reversible causes is premature.
Neurologist referral (C) may be appropriate but should follow initial
workup. Diagnosing Alzheimer's (D) without ruling out reversible
causes is inappropriate.
Assessment – Chamberlain College of
Nursing (2025/2026) – 100 Questions
with 100% Verified Correct Answers
Question 1
A 58-year-old male with a 30-pack-year smoking history presents with a
chronic cough producing blood-tinged sputum, unintentional weight loss
of 15 pounds over 3 months, and persistent right-sided chest pain. Chest
X-ray reveals a right hilar mass. Which of the following is the most
appropriate next step?
A) Order a CT-guided biopsy of the mass
B) Prescribe a course of antibiotics and re-evaluate in 2 weeks
C) Refer the patient for a PET-CT scan
D) Order a bronchoscopy with biopsy
,,,answer,,,: D) Order a bronchoscopy with biopsy
Rationale: This patient's presentation—hemoptysis, weight loss, chest
pain, and a hilar mass in a heavy smoker—is highly suspicious for lung
cancer. Bronchoscopy with biopsy is the gold standard for obtaining
tissue diagnosis of central lesions like a hilar mass. While CT-guided
biopsy (A) is appropriate for peripheral lesions, it is less suitable for
central hilar masses due to vascular structures. Antibiotics (B) would
delay diagnosis of a potentially malignant process. PET-CT (C) is useful
,for staging after a tissue diagnosis has been confirmed, not as the initial
diagnostic step.
Question 2
A 45-year-old female with a history of hypertension presents with a 3-
day history of severe, throbbing headache located in the right temporal
region, associated with jaw claudication and visual disturbances. She
reports tenderness when brushing her hair. Her erythrocyte
sedimentation rate (ESR) is 95 mm/hr and C-reactive protein (CRP) is
elevated. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial
management?
A) Prescribe sumatriptan for migraine relief
B) Start high-dose corticosteroids immediately
C) Order a temporal artery biopsy
D) Prescribe acetaminophen and schedule a follow-up in 1 week
,,,answer,,,: B) Start high-dose corticosteroids immediately
Rationale: This patient's presentation is classic for giant cell arteritis
(temporal arteritis)—unilateral temporal headache, jaw claudication,
visual disturbances, scalp tenderness, and markedly elevated
inflammatory markers. Temporal arteritis is a medical emergency
because it can cause irreversible blindness due to ischemic optic
neuropathy. High-dose corticosteroids should be started immediately to
prevent vision loss, even before biopsy confirmation. Temporal artery
biopsy (C) should be performed within 1–2 weeks of starting steroids,
but steroids should never be delayed for biopsy. Sumatriptan (A) is for
,migraine and would be inappropriate. Acetaminophen (D) provides no
disease-modifying benefit and delays life-saving treatment.
Question 3
A 32-year-old male presents with a 2-week history of intermittent,
crampy abdominal pain, bloating, and alternating diarrhea and
constipation. He reports that his symptoms improve with bowel
movements. He has no fever, weight loss, or blood in his stool. Physical
examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most
appropriate initial diagnostic approach?
A) Colonoscopy
B) Abdominal CT scan with contrast
C) Rome IV criteria-based clinical diagnosis
D) Stool culture and ova/parasite examination
,,,answer,,,: C) Rome IV criteria-based clinical diagnosis
Rationale: This patient's symptoms are consistent with irritable bowel
syndrome (IBS), a functional gastrointestinal disorder diagnosed using
the Rome IV criteria. These criteria require recurrent abdominal pain at
least 1 day per week in the last 3 months, associated with two or more
of: related to defecation, change in stool frequency, or change in stool
form. The absence of alarm features (fever, weight loss, hematochezia,
nocturnal symptoms) allows for a clinical diagnosis without immediate
invasive testing. Colonoscopy (A) and CT (B) are reserved for patients
with alarm features or age >50. Stool studies (D) are appropriate if
infectious etiology is suspected but are not the first step in the absence of
fever or bloody stools.
, Question 4
A 67-year-old female with a history of osteoporosis is brought to the
clinic by her daughter due to progressive memory loss over the past 2
years. The patient is unable to recall recent events, has difficulty finding
words, and has become socially withdrawn. She scores 21/30 on the
Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE). Which of the following is the
most appropriate next step in management?
A) Start donepezil and schedule a follow-up in 3 months
B) Order a non-contrast head CT and laboratory studies including TSH,
B12, and folate
C) Refer to a neurologist for further evaluation
D) Diagnose Alzheimer's disease and provide caregiver education
,,,answer,,,: B) Order a non-contrast head CT and laboratory
studies including TSH, B12, and folate
Rationale: Before diagnosing Alzheimer's disease or other dementias, it
is essential to rule out reversible causes of cognitive impairment. The
American Academy of Neurology recommends neuroimaging (non-
contrast head CT or MRI) and laboratory studies including thyroid
function (TSH), vitamin B12, and folate levels in the initial evaluation of
dementia. While donepezil (A) may be appropriate after a diagnosis is
confirmed, starting it before ruling out reversible causes is premature.
Neurologist referral (C) may be appropriate but should follow initial
workup. Diagnosing Alzheimer's (D) without ruling out reversible
causes is inappropriate.
