PMT 4910V EXAM QUESTIONS WELL ANSWERED LATEST UPDATE 2026

PMT 4910V EXAM QUESTIONS WELL ANSWERED LATEST UPDATE 2026 Which of the following is a responsibility of the Integrated Product Team (IPT) during the Risk management (RM) process? - Answers Develop and implement the risk process planning outlined in key program documents and support the program manager (PM) and the Risk Management Board (RMB) as required During engineering and manufacturing development (EMD), risks should be identified related to critical manufacturing process and key product characteristics in which of the following risk areas? - Answers Manufacturing Supply Chain During the Materiel Solution Analysis (MSA) phase, proactive activities to prevent technical risks focus on which of the following? - Answers Developing requirements a moderate issue with staffing shortages on your program is being tracked. new developers were estimated to be on staff by March 8, but it appears that this deadline will not be reached. What is an appropriate action to monitor this issue? - Answers Update and review the issue regularly and analyze potential changes to the issue level and potential associated risks. What would be the appropriate corrective action for the following issue: a major water leak has permanently damaged 45% of the servers used to control the cloud-based newtork infrastructure. This has been desiganted a high issue. - Answers Control Which stage of the issue management (IM) process is characterized by the following scenario: A test of the new portable Doppler-based wind measuring system demonstrates that the system works well, but the battery drains out after the system is left in stand-by mode for 5 hours. - Answers Issue identification The new high-tech deep-sea vessel that your program is developing requires five separate research and development projects to create new materials and components. Each component relies on the others to inform how it will be designed. Is this interdependency a risk or an opportunity? - Answers Risk Your program includes teams in six different locations. these teams need access to different pieces of risk monitoring data in order to monitor, manage, and report risk. Which of the following risk monitoring tools would be most appropriate? - Answers Risk management (RM) information system You are managing a program for the U.S. Navy to devleop a new diving helmet with enhanced visualization capabilities. This type of technology requires materials that have never been used in high-pressure environments. Which of the following risk control approaches would be most appropriate for this scenario? - Answers Design of experiments What type of risks can be identified from a Monte Carlo Simulation? - Answers Cost and schedule risk Which of the followinng are the most common sources of risk in acquistiion? - Answers cost, schedule, and human systems integration The following describes which type of category of risk: after testing a new prototype drone system, the Program Executive Office (PEO) has determined that changes need to be made that will increase the cost and push the schedule. If the schedule and cost estimates are not updated accordingly, the program will not achieve its goals. - Answers Programmatic What is a good method for using risk identification tools to identify risks? - Answers combine a top-level method with a lower-level method. Where are the liklihood and consequnce paramaters and thresholds documented? - Answers the program risk process (PRP) document Within a program, approval to move a program into the next acquistion phase is made at what level of the organization structure? - Answers executive level Which of the following is a good example of a framing assumption (FA)? - Answers contractors will offer mature designs that allow prototypes to be delivered in five months Which of the following is a critical success factor to ensure effective risk managemetn (RM)? - Answers aligning government and contractor risk management Which step of the Department of Defense (DoD) Risk Management Process consists of the actitives to develop, implement, and document the risk magenment process? - Answers Planning Compare and contrast the two primary techniques for Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) construction - top-down and bottom-up - by selecting the most accurate statements below regarding the two techniques. (select three that apply) - Answers The top-down method of WBS construction is normally used in the procurements of products (i.e. hardware and / or software); The last three steps of the bottom-up method are to review and discuss the task categories to ensure they correctly capture the tasks listed, to review and discuss the categories to ensure all tasks are listed under the correct category, and to finalize the WBS; The bottom-up method is typically used with the acquisition of services Which component of the work breakdhow sturcture (WBS) is a natural management point for planning that represents the work assigned to one responsible organizational element for a single WBS element? - Answers Control account Which of the following statements are true regarding the differences between a Program Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) and a Contract WBS? (Select two that apply) - Answers A program WBS includes both government and contractor efforts, whereas a contract WBS includes only contractor efforts; A contract WBS groups the project's work elements that organize and define the total work scope of the project, whereas a program WBS further details components of the system that are needed for its completion. A technical publication is what type of common element? - Answers Data Which of the following defense materiel items or systems are used in a work breadown structure? (Select three that apply) - Answers equipment Data Services What are three process steps for constructing a network schedule using the PDM format? (Select three that apply) - Answers Sequence the tasks Determine resource requirements Identify the task Which 14-Point Schedule metric consists of incomplete tasks with missing predecessor and/or successor tasks, and helps determine how well or poorly scheduled tasks are linked together? - Answers Logic Which of the folloing components of the Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM) is identified by locating the automatically generated red bars? - Answers Critical Path Which three categories do schedules primarily fall into? - Answers Gantt Chart Network Diagrams Milestone Charts Which two of the folloiwng are characteristics of the use of Agile Project Management in scheduling? - Answers Work closely with the customer in order to focus agile teams on the highest impact and most current requirements; produce new or additional functionality that is fully usable in each series of schedule sprints Summary schedules graphically depict the contractually required events and milestones to accomplish program objectives, whereas detailed schedules do what? - Answers Graphically depict the effort at the work package and planning package level According to your engineering notebook, the last several times you put together a Preliminary Design Review (PDR) package, it took four days. You estimate that the effort for a new project will be twice as difficult. You use this information to provide an estimate for eight days. Which type of estimating technique is most appropriate in this situation? - Answers Analogy estimate The end result of the Identification of Schedule Tasks step in the Schedule Development and Management Process is identified in the course or in this comprehensive list of all the tasks to be performed for the program. As a program manager (PM), what additional three pieces of information can you include to this list? (select three that apply) - Answers Known predecessor or success activities; total float for each task; required leads and lags Given changes (budget cuts, schedule slips, etc) to a planned government solicitation, what is one benefit of financial projections that is aided by a Cost-Volume-Profit analysis? - Answers A Cost-Volume-Profit analysis helps to calculate whether changes will affect a company's ability to cover its costs with its total sales revenue. What do the Net Present Value tables provide for any combination of number of periods and discount rates? - Answers The present value of those projected future cash payments Which of the following are true about discount rate? - Answers The discount rate is often referred to as the hurdle rate; The discount rate is highly subjective What do profitability ratios indicate? - Answers How much net income is left to a company from its sales Which ratio indicates if a company carries excessive debt? - Answers Financial leverage ratio Which category of rations indicates how a company is using debt to fund itself, its expansion plans, and it's capital structure? - Answers Capitalization ratios Which of the following explains the purpose for examining an organization's financial statements as part of a financial capability analysis? - Answers To examine the capabilities of a company in terms of financial resources and stability Which of the following best describes a monopsony? - Answers Single customer, several suppliers A greater emphasis on shorter-term incentives is intended to guide behavior more toward which of the following? - Answers Excellent delivery of work in hand Which formula would you use to compare Return on Sales (ROS) between companies? - Answers ROS = EBIT/Total Sales How are subcontractor costs captured in the prime's price to the government? - Answers As direct material What financial report shows the book value of a company at a point in time? - Answers Balance sheet A contractor believes that an RFP contains extremely high technical risk, and the range of potential cost outcomes is very large. Which of the following contract types should the contractor pursue, assuming it wants zero cost risk and zero fee risk? - Answers Cost Plus Fixed Fee Under which circumstances is a company most likely to price its product to cover only its non-fixed costs? - Answers When it is trying to enter a dominant company's market space Which of the following does not tend to drive differences between the contractor's and government's cost estimates? - Answers Items for which a small change in value has little impact on overall program cost Which of the following is a probable reason a company's total gross profit margin by the end of a fixed price contract was much higher than what it negotiated with the government? - Answers It won unplanned work after award against which it was able to allocate some company fixed costs What are two primary financial measures used by firms that can affect executive compensation? - Answers ROIC and Cash Flow A purpose of negotiating for what you hope to be a long-term relationship is: - Answers to create value for both parties Which one of the following is best to exclude from a company's Forward Pricing Rate Agreements (FPRA) proposal to DCMA? - Answers An option year of current work that the HAC and SAC unfunded in their versions of next year's appropriation bill Which of the following is a true statement about cash flow? - Answers Cash flow is an indicator of a company's ability to meet its short-term financial commitments Why are quarterly earnings reports so important for a publicly traded company? - Answers Shareholders put value on profitable and predictable returns on investment What two costs have a major bearing on a company's decision to outsource? - Answers Transaction Cost and Production Cost Which of the following statements concerning contractor costs is true? - Answers G&A is part of the fully burdened cost of an employee Which possibility would violate funding policies? - Answers Using O&M to fund a design change prior to Milestone C Which of the following is TRUE concerning Test and Evaluation (T&E)? - Answers The system has a waiver for Full-Up System Level (FUSL) live-fire test, but there are live-fire test events scheduled When should the Development Request for Proposal Release Decision (DRFPRD) point be scheduled in the acquisition strategy? - Answers Prior to the RFP release for the Engineering and Manufacturing Development (EMD) contract, and after Capability Development Document (CDD) Validation What will the MDA assess at Full Rate Production (FRP) decision review? - Answers Results of initial OT&E (Operational Test and Evaluation), initial manufacturing, and consideration of any new validated threat environments Which of the following is FALSE concerning a JUON? - Answers It can be fielded within 5 years Which of the following is correct regarding the resource allocation process (PPBE (Planning Programming Budgeting and Execution))? - Answers The program manager should work any out-year shortfalls through the Program Objective Memorandum (POM). Current year shortfalls would require a reprogramming action or a de-scope How should a possible change in the Low-Rate Initial Production (LRIP) contract type (from firm fixed price to fixed price incentive) be addressed prior to Milestone C? - Answers The PM should update the acquisition strategy with the proposed contract type prior to Milestone C and discuss why it is appropriate The Engineering and Manufacturing Development (EMD) Phase will end when: the design is stable; the system meets validated capability requirements demonstrated by developmental, live fire (as appropriate) and early operational testing; and manufacturing processes have been effectively demonstrated and are under control; software sustainment processes are in place and functioning; industrial production capabilities are reasonably available; program security remains uncompromised; and - Answers the program has met or exceeded all directed EMD phase exit criteria and Milestone C entrance criteria per the MDA's direction What are some of the actions that follow a Nunn-McCurdy Acquisition Program Baseline (APB) cost breach? - Answers Congress must be notified, the root cause must be determined, and the USD (A&S) must terminate the program or submit a certification to Congress that the program is essential to the national security and that there are no alternatives at less cost. If not terminated, SECDEF must submit a certification to Congress Which of the following is FALSE regarding costs in the APB? - Answers Should cost is the official cost position of the DoD Which of the following best describes Value Engineering (VE) in the EMD phase? - Answers VE should support the system engineering process by helping to develop alternative ways of providing the required function with lower production and sustainment costs Which of the following is NOT a manufacturing risk that is often present in major capability acquisition system programs? - Answers Use of Lean Enterprise Principles the "5 Ms" of manufacturing are: manpower, machinery, methods, measurement, and - Answers materials What action is appropriate for extremely high interest Congressional inquiries? - Answers Send an interim response that includes any information available and when to expect a final response The term "full-up, system-level testing" (FUSL) means testing that satisfies the statutory requirement for realistic ________ testing - Answers survivability (vulnerability) and/or lethality (combat performance) During a major capability acquistion pathway, what kind of operational testing should be conducted during the Engineering and Manufacturing Development (EMD) phase, and what decision will the test results support? - Answers Operational Assessment (OA) to support the Milestone C decision In accordance with DoDI 5000.85, which of the following is FALSE regarding affordability of the program at development RFP (Request for Proposal) release decision and Milestone B? - Answers Affordability is applicable only to procurement of the system, not to future O&S costs Which of the following is NOT an activity that will be conducted during the Engineering and Manufacturing Development (EMD) phase? - Answers Capability Development Document (CDD) initial validation Who would have to approve a change to a Key Performance Parameter (KPP) for an ACAT 1 program? - Answers Joint Requirements Oversight Council (JROC) Which step in the DoD risk management model identifies possible methods to reduce risk before completing the system design? - Answers Risk Mitigation Program managers are required to summarize the top program risks and associated risk mitigation plans in the _____; and describe their technical approach, including key technical risks, and management and execution of risk mitigation activities, in the ________. - Answers Acquisition Strategy; System Engineering Plan (SEP) Which of the following is TRUE regarding COTS software use? - Answers Using COTS software may help, but is not guaranteed to do so, and may even cause greater problems. Which of the following best describes the "agile" approach? - Answers The requirements and solutions evolve through collaboration between self-organizing, cross-functional teams, and continuous delivery of useable software Which technical process results is a functional baseline? - Answers Requirements Analysis Which technical review ensures that the Program Management Office (PMO), the user, and the contractor all have a common understanding and agreement on the program's system level technical requirements and the costs, schedule, and risks associated with realizing a system to meet those requirements? - Answers System Requirements Review (SRR) Which of the following is a potential benefit of a competitive environment? - Answers Improves the quality of delivered products or services