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NCCAOM Biomedicine Board Ultimate Exam

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The NCCAOM Biomedicine Board Ultimate Exam bridges conventional medical sciences with integrative healthcare practice. Topics include anatomy, physiology, pathology, microbiology, pharmacology, diagnostic testing, medical terminology, infection control, and patient safety. Candidates strengthen biomedical knowledge necessary for safe and effective collaboration within modern healthcare environments.

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Institution
Computers
Course
Computers

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NCCAOM Biomedicine Board Ultimate Exam
**Question 1. Which of the following structures is the primary site of erythropoiesis in adults?**

A) Spleen

B) Liver

C) Bone marrow

D) Lymph nodes

Answer: C

Explanation: In adults, red blood cell production occurs mainly in the red (hematopoietic) marrow of
long bones, ribs, pelvis, and vertebrae.



**Question 2. The primary action of the hormone aldosterone is to:**

A) Increase renal calcium excretion

B) Decrease sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule

C) Increase sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion in the distal nephron

D) Stimulate antidiuretic hormone release

Answer: C

Explanation: Aldosterone binds to receptors in the distal tubule and collecting duct, promoting Na⁺
reabsorption and K⁺ secretion, thereby raising blood volume and pressure.



**Question 3. Which cranial nerve is responsible for the afferent limb of the corneal blink reflex?**

A) CN III

B) CN V

C) CN VII

D) CN X

Answer: B

Explanation: The ophthalmic branch (V1) of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) carries sensory input from the
cornea to the brainstem, initiating the blink reflex.



**Question 4. A 45-year-old patient presents with pain on resisted dorsiflexion of the foot and a positive
Thompson test. Which structure is most likely injured?**

A) Gastrocnemius muscle

, NCCAOM Biomedicine Board Ultimate Exam
B) Achilles tendon

C) Plantar fascia

D) Peroneus longus tendon

Answer: B

Explanation: The Thompson test assesses the integrity of the Achilles tendon; lack of plantar-flexion
when the calf is squeezed indicates rupture.



**Question 5. Which of the following best describes the “Hering-Breuer reflex”?**

A) Inhibition of inspiration by stretch receptors in the bronchi

B) Stimulation of diaphragm contraction by chemoreceptors

C) Reflex tachycardia during hypoxia

D) Vasodilation of pulmonary arteries during exercise

Answer: A

Explanation: Pulmonary stretch receptors activated by lung inflation send signals via the vagus to inhibit
further inspiratory effort, preventing over-inflation.



**Question 6. In the cardiac cycle, the “isovolumetric contraction” phase occurs:**

A) After the aortic valve opens

B) When both AV valves are closed and the ventricles begin to contract

C) During rapid ventricular filling

D) When the mitral valve opens

Answer: B

Explanation: Isovolumetric contraction is the period after the AV valves close and before the semilunar
valves open; ventricular pressure rises without volume change.



**Question 7. Which of the following is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?**

A) Essential hypertension

B) Renal artery stenosis

C) Pheochromocytoma

D) Cushing’s syndrome

, NCCAOM Biomedicine Board Ultimate Exam
Answer: B

Explanation: Renovascular hypertension due to renal artery stenosis is the leading identifiable secondary
cause, accounting for up to 5% of hypertensive patients.



**Question 8. A patient with type 2 diabetes presents with a fasting blood glucose of 130 mg/dL and an
HbA1c of 7.2 %. According to ADA criteria, this patient is classified as:**

A) Normal glucose tolerance

B) Prediabetes

C) Diabetes mellitus

D) Impaired fasting glucose

Answer: C

Explanation: An HbA1c ≥ 6.5 % or fasting glucose ≥ 126 mg/dL meets the diagnostic threshold for
diabetes.



**Question 9. Which of the following antibiotics is a bacteriostatic agent that inhibits protein synthesis
by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit?**

A) Vancomycin

B] Ciprofloxacin

C) Tetracycline

D) Ampicillin

Answer: C

Explanation: Tetracyclines bind the 30S subunit, blocking the attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA, resulting in
bacteriostatic inhibition of protein synthesis.



**Question 10. The “McMurray test” is used to assess integrity of which knee structure?**

A) Medial collateral ligament

B) Posterior cruciate ligament

C) Meniscus

D) Anterior cruciate ligament

Answer: C

, NCCAOM Biomedicine Board Ultimate Exam
Explanation: The test involves flexing, rotating, and extending the knee; a click or pain suggests a
meniscal tear.



**Question 11. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of statins?**

A) Inhibit HMG-CoA reductase, decreasing hepatic cholesterol synthesis

B) Increase LDL receptor activity by up-regulating PCSK9

C) Block cholesterol absorption in the intestine

D) Activate peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor-α (PPAR-α)

Answer: A

Explanation: Statins competitively inhibit HMG-CoA reductase, the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol
biosynthesis, leading to up-regulation of hepatic LDL receptors.



**Question 12. In the autonomic nervous system, the neurotransmitter released from post-ganglionic
parasympathetic fibers is:**

A) Norepinephrine

B) Epinephrine

C) Acetylcholine

D) Dopamine

Answer: C

Explanation: Parasympathetic post-ganglionic neurons release acetylcholine onto target organs,
mediating “rest-and-digest” effects.



**Question 13. A 30-year-old male presents with a bull’s-eye rash on the trunk and a history of recent
camping. Which organism is most likely responsible?**

A) Borrelia burgdorferi

B) Rickettsia rickettsii

C) Ehrlichia chaffeensis

D) Bartonella henselae

Answer: B

Explanation: Rocky Mountain spotted fever, caused by Rickettsia rickettsii, typically presents with a
maculopapular rash that may become petechial (“bull’s-eye”) and is associated with tick exposure.

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