BioChem C785 / Biochemistry Unit 4 QUIZ

BIOCHEM C785 2ND OA READINESS CHECK 2020 The 2nd OA Readiness Check is designed to give you additional practice with new assessment-style questions to help prepare for success on the OA. Thus, please try to mimic exam-like conditions by taking the test in one 2 hr sitting without any study aids apart from your whiteboard/scrap paper. Note: You can take the 2nd OA Readiness Check again if you're so inclined, but you can not edit your response as you may have done with the topic questions. You will be able to see the results afterwards. 1. What is the complementary sequence to 3’ ATG CGA ATA 5’? * 1/1 3’ TAT TCG CAT 5’ 3’ TAC GCT TAT 5’ 3’ GAT AGC ATA 5’ 5’ ATA AGC GTA 3’ 2. Which amino acid sequence would result from this Coding DNA strand? 3’ ATG CAG ATA 5’? * 1/1 Tyr Val Tyr Ile Gln Ile Ile Asp Val Leu His Lys 3. Which amino acid sequence would be made from this template DNA strand? 5’ TAT TAC CGA 3’? * 0/1 Tyr Tyr Arg Ile Met Ala Ser Val Ile Ser His Gln 4. Which of the following are the correct components for a PCR reaction? * 1/1 dNTPs, Primer, RNA Polymerase, template RNA dNTPs, Primer, DNA Polymerase, template DNA ATP, Primer, mRNA polymerase; template mRNA Acetyl CoA, RNA primer, DNA Ligase, Template phosphate 5. If you had a mother who is homozygous for a recessive disease, and a father who is a heterozygous carrier, what percentage of children will have the disease? * 1/1 0% 25% 50% 75% 100% 6. Which of the following would represent a silent mutation if this is the original sequence: 5’ AUC GUA ACA 3’? * 1/1 5’ AUC GGA ACA 3’ 5’ AUA GUA ACA 3’ 5’ AUC GUA UAA 3’ 5’ AUC CUC ACA 3’ 7. If the original coding sequence is 5’ CGA TAC TTC AGA 3’ and it is mutated to 5' CGA TAT TTC AGA 3', what type of mutation would have taken place? * 1/1 Silent Missense Nonsense Insertion 8. Huntington's is an autosomal dominant disorder. Which of the following chromosome pairs would be inherited by a person with Huntington's Disease? (Yellow box = Dominant allele, Green box = Recessive allele) * 1/1 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 9. The pedigree below tracks Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD) through several generations. What type of inheritance does DMD express? * 0/1 Autosomal dominant Autosomal recessive X-linked Dominant X- Linked recessive 10. Rett syndrome is a brain disorder that occurs almost exclusively in females, causing severe deficits in language, learning, coordination and other brain functions. Decreased expression of the MECP2 gene causes Rett syndrome. Which of the following scenarios correctly describes how Rett syndrome could be developed? * 1/1 A DNA-binding protein blocks RNA Polymerase from binding to the promoter sequence, facilitating the transcription of the MECP2 gene. Transcription factors are unable to bind to the transcription start site of the MECP2 gene because nucleosomes are tightly packed together. Transcription activators cause nucleosomes to separate, exposing the MECP2 gene. RNA Polymerase binds to the MECP2 gene and begins translation. 11. Which of the following strands are complementary and anti- parallel? * 1/1 Coding and Non-template Template and mRNA Coding and mRNA Template and tRNA 12. What is the correct order of the Central Dogma? * 1/1 Translation, Replication, Transcription Transcription, Replication, Translation Translation, Transcription, Replication Replication, Transcription, Translation 13. What happens when the incorrect base is added during the synthesis of a DNA strand in DNA replication? * 1/1 The homologous chromosome is used to replace the incorrectly added base with the correct one. DNA Polymerase removes the incorrect base and adds in the correct base. Thymine dimers occur. Distortion of the double helix occurs and is repaired by RNA Polymerase. 14. What is the correct definition of nucleotide excision repair? * 1/1 Removal of a single damaged nucleotide Damage to a few or several nucleotides are identified, then many nucleotides are removed and all are replaced to repair the DNA segment Required when there are breaks in the double stranded DNA strand which causes discontinuity in both strands Insertion of a thymine dimer 15. What type of interactions would be affected in a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis? (select all that apply) * 0/1 Ionic bonds Disulfide bonds 16. On a hot summer's day, I was cleaning my garage. My cat Sophie was out with me, and got into a bottle containing a strong reducing agent. Of course I took her straight to the vet. What type of amino acid bonds would be disrupted by exposure to the strong reducing agent? * 1/1 Hydrophobic interactions Hydrogen bonds Disulfide bonds Ionic bonds 17. What type of bond can the amino acids below form to stabilize the tertiary structure of a protein? * 1/1 Ionic bond Hydrophobic interaction Hydrogen bond Disulfide bond 18. What type of reaction forms the primary structure of a protein? * 1/1 Activation energy Enzymes Dehydration Hydrolysis 19. Myoglobin is an oxygen storage protein and exhibits a hyperbolic curve in an oxygen saturation graph. What is the highest level of protein structure exhibited by myoglobin? * 1/1 Primary Secondary Tertiary Quaternary 20. What level of protein structure involves alpha helices and beta pleated sheets? * 1/1 Primary Secondary Tertiary Quaternary 21. Hydrogen bonds between backbone groups stabilize what level of protein structure? * 1/1 Primary Secondary Tertiary Quaternary 22. Which of the following is true about protein structure and function? * 0/1 A protein has optimal function in its primary structure. All proteins carry out cellular functions when they have obtained their final quaternary structure. Ionic bonds between the backbone groups of amino acids stabilize a protein's tertiary structure. The hydrophobic effect primarily contributes to a single subunit protein's tertiary structure. 23. Glutamine is located at position 13, of a protein, and forms a hydrogen bond with the amino acid at position 89. What would happen if the amino acid at position 89 was mutated to alanine? * 1/1 Nothing they will bind normally The hydrogen bond will no longer be formed, and the protein will be misfolded Nothing, they will form a hydrophobic interaction They will form a disulfide bond 24. An elderly patient is diagnosed with Alzheimer’s Disease. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this neurological disorder? * 1/1 Disulfide bond formation by cysteine amino acids Iron deficiency Aggregation of hydrophobic amino acids Ionic bonds formed by hydrogen bonding of amino acids 25. What type of bond is found in the primary structure of a protein? * 1/1 Ionic Disulfide Charged Peptide 26. Which pair of amino acids below could bond together to stabilize the tertiary structure of a protein? * 0/1 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 27. If arginine is mutated to leucine within a protein, how would the structure of the protein be affected? * 1/1 Ionic bonds will continue to form, allowing the protein to fold as normal. Hydrophobic interactions will continue to occur resulting in normal folding. Ionic bonds will no longer form, potentially causing the protein to misfold. Hydrophobic interactions will be broken, potentially causing aggregation. 28. Frying an egg in a pan changes the egg white color, due to the protein ovalbumin, from translucent to white. Which bond or interaction is most likely to be disrupted within the Ovalbumin? * 1/1 Ionic bonds Hydrophobic interactions Disulfide bonds None of the above 29. During a morning run on the treadmill, the blood around muscle tissue becomes increasingly acidic. What happens to hemoglobin when it encounters this acidic muscle tissue? * 0/1 Hemoglobin will switch into the R-state and deliver oxygen Hemoglobin will bind and store oxygen Hemoglobin will switch into the T-state and deliver oxygen Hemoglobin will switch into the R-state and bind oxygen 30. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between hemoglobin and myoglobin? * 1/1 Hemoglobin binds oxygen in a cooperative manner, while Myoglobin binds oxygen with a relatively higher affinity and stores oxygen. Hemoglobin has tertiary structure, while Myoglobin has quaternary structure and binds oxygen in a cooperative manner. Hemoglobin stores oxygen and Myoglobin delivers oxygen to oxygen-deprived muscle tissue. Myoglobin is bound by 2,3-BPG and changes into the T-state to deliver oxygen 31. Which of the following molecules binds directly to the iron molecule in hemoglobin? * 1/1 CO2 Mg 2,3-BPG CO 32. Based on the graph below, which of the following statements is true? * 1/1 The hemoglobin curve will shift to the right when there is a high concentration of H+ (protons) and the concentration of CO2 is high. The hemoglobin curve will shift to the left when there is a high concentration of H+ (protons) and the concentration of CO2 is low. The hemoglobin curve will shift to the right when there is a low concentration of H+ (protons) and the concentration of CO2 is low. The hemoglobin curve will shift to the left when there is a high concentration of H+ (protons) and the concentration of CO2 is high. 33. What occurs as the amount of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen increases? * 1/1 Hemoglobin adopts the T-state conformation and the heme groups become planar. Hemoglobin adopts the R-state conformation and the heme groups become planar. Hemoglobin adopts the T-state conformation and the heme groups become bent. Hemoglobin adopts the R-state conformation and the heme groups become bent. 34. Susie is 18 weeks pregnant with twins and was recently diagnosed with gestational diabetes. Susie’s twins are developing according to schedule and Susie hopes to carry the twins as close to full term as possible. Which statement below describes how a sufficient amount of oxygen is made available to Susie’s developing fetuses? 1/1 Bicarbonate binds to Susie’s hemoglobin and stabilizes the T-state conformation, which favors the delivery of oxygen to the developing fetuses. 2,3-BPG binds to Susie’s hemoglobin and stabilizes the T-state conformation, which favors the delivery of oxygen to the developing fetuses. Carbon monoxide binds to Susie’s hemoglobin and stabilizes the R-state conformation, which increases the delivery of oxygen to the developing fetuses. Bicarbonate induces Susie’s hemoglobin to adopt a non-planar conformation and bind oxygen so that the developing fetuses are sufficiently oxygenated. 35. Alex is preparing to run in his first 5K. As he stretches, his muscles are producing ATP through aerobic metabolic pathways. A byproduct of a functioning citric acid cycle is carbon dioxide. How is this carbon dioxide removed from the body? * 1/1 Carbon dioxide is converted to bicarbonate and binds to hemoglobin, which shuttles the carbon dioxide to the lungs so that it can be exhaled out of the body. Carbon dioxide flows through the bloodstream to the lungs so that it can be exhaled out of the body. Carbonic anhydrase helps carbon dioxide stick to hemoglobin, which shuttles the carbon dioxide to the lungs. In the lungs, Carbonic Anhydrase converts carbon dioxide to a gas so that it can be exhaled out of the body. Carbonic anhydrase converts carbon dioxide to bicarbonate, which can flow through the bloodstream to the lungs. In the lungs, Carbonic Anhydrase converts bicarbonate back to carbon dioxide so that it can be exhaled out of the body. 36. If Enzyme 4, in the pathway below, were inhibited, which of the following would be true? * 1/1 The amount of A would decrease The amount of D would increase The amount of C would decrease The amount of E would increase 37. Describe what would happen if Enzyme 2 in the pathway below were inhibited. * 1/1 The amount of compound C would build up The amount of compound B would build up The amount of compound D would increase The amount of compound A would decrease 38. An experimental compound, termed Drug X, can inhibit an enzyme by binding at a site that is distinct from the enzyme's active site. What type of inhibitor is Drug X? * 1/1 Competitive Non-competitive Sequential Congruent 39. Which enzyme adds a phosphate group from ATP to a molecule. * 1/1 Kinase Phosphatase Acetyltransferase Dehydrogenase 40. Alcohol dehydrogenase converts ethanol to acetoacetate. Which one of the compounds below could act as a competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase? * 1/1 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 41. Which molecule would build up if Enzyme 2 were inhibited? * 1/1 A B C D 42. In the enzymatic cycle figure below, identify the step that best demonstrates where the ‘induced fit model’ would occur. * 1/1 1 2 3 4 43. Melatonin is a molecule, produced primarily in the pineal gland, which regulates the circadian rhythm. The following pathway depicts how the Serotonin is converted to Melatonin. Which of the molecules listed below is most likely to act as a feedback inhibitor of the pathway? * 0/1 Serotonin AcCoA N-acetyl-serotonin Melatonin 44. Different compounds are needed to carry out essential cellular functions which maintain a physiological homeostatic balance. Enzymes catalyze reactions that produce these compounds and, in doing so, play a pivotal role in our bodies. Which statement below accurately describes how enzymes catalyze reactions within our cells. * 1/1 Enzymes increase the activation energy of a reaction. Enzymes decrease the reaction rate. Enzymes don’t change the reaction rate. Enzymes decrease the activation energy of a reaction. 45. Zylezol is a fictitious drug that attenuates enzymatic activity. Over time, however, increased concentration of the enzyme’s substrate renders Zylezol ineffective. What kind of inhibition is used by Zylezol? * 1/1 Communicative Non-competitive Competitive Saturated 46. Asparagine endopeptidase has optimal activity at an acidic pH of 5.5 and a temperature of 98 degrees F. Under which of the following conditions would the catalytic activity of asparagine endopeptidase be highest? * 1/1 In brain tissue at pH 5 following traumatic brain injury Exposure to a temperature of 150 degrees F In renal tissue at pH 10 during alkalosis Exposure to a temperature of 20 degrees F 47. How many ATP would we expect to produce from glucose after one full round of aerobic metabolism? * 0/1 2 4 6 30 48. What most accurately describes this reaction? * 0/1 Catabolic Anabolic Dehydration Hydrolysis 49. If the pharmacologic drug Naproxen targeted an essential step in the citric acid cycle, what would we expect for the output of ATP? * 1/1 It would increase the amount of ATP made It would decrease the amount of ATP made It would not affect the output of ATP made It would decrease the amount of Acetyl CoA made 50. Concomitant with electron transfer, complexes I, III and IV of the electron transport chain pump protons from the to the . * 1/1 Mitochondrial Matrix, Cytoplasm Cytoplasm, Mitochondrial Matrix Mitochondrial Matrix, Intermembrane Space Intermembrane Space, Mitochondrial Matrix 51. If Metformin targets the efficacy of the Cori Cycle, what would be the possible changes to body pH? * 0/1 No change Blood will go acidotic Blood will go alkaline Temperature will increase 52. Fermentation allows the cell, under conditions, to continue the (name of cycle) and make amounts of ATP * 1/1 Aerobic, citric acid cycle, large Anaerobic, citric acid cycle, large Aerobic, glycolysis, small Anaerobic, glycolysis, small 53. The following outputs are a part of which metabolic cycle? 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, 2 NADH * 1/1 Fermentation Citric acid cycle Glycolysis Gluconeogenesis 54. Which statement best describes the role of NADH in aerobic metabolism? * 1/1 NADH is an electron shuttle that carries electrons to the electron transport chain. NADH is a proton shuttle that carries protons to the electron transport chain. NADH is a high energy molecule that directly fuels all cellular work. NADH is an electron shuttle that carries electron to the Krebs cycle. 55. Why must red blood cells perform anaerobic metabolism? * 1/1 They are small and can only use glucose as an energy source They do not have mitochondria, so they have to function by anaerobic metabolism They have a specialized citric acid cycle that allows them to undergo anaerobic metabolism They do not need ATP 56. Following glycolysis, what decides the fate of pyruvate? * 0/1 When oxygen is present, pyruvate is converted lactate during fermentation When oxygen is not present, pyruvate enters the mitochondrial matrix and is converted to lactate When oxygen is present, pyruvate is converted to acetyl-CoA in the mitochondrial matrix When oxygen is present, pyruvate produces glucose to reverse the cycle 57. How many net ATP will be produced from one round of glycolysis? * 0/1 2 4 6 30 58. Maria takes a snack break while she is at work. Which one of the processes below would be stimulated after Maria eats a Snickers bar? * 1/1 Gluconeogenesis Glycogenolysis Glucagon Glycogenesis 59. A coworker shared that he is dieting and has been avoiding fatty foods. He mentions that he craves starchy foods and has been eating more of them. After two months on the diet, his body fat composition has increased slightly. What could account for this? * 1/1 The starchy foods lead to an increase in acetyl-CoA, which is necessary for fatty acid synthesis. Carbohydrates and fatty acids have similar molecular structures. This allows for carbohydrates to be directly stored as fat. The diet has caused a buildup of glycogen in the adipose and muscle cells. An increase in carbohydrates leads to protein glycosylation that results in decreased triglyceride synthesis in the kidneys. 60. What is the role of insulin, when is it released, and how does it affect the overall blood glucose? * 1/1 Insulin lowers blood glucose levels by allowing glucose to enter into cells through the use of Glut4 when blood sugar is high Insulin raises blood glucose levels by allowing glucose to leave cells through the use of Glut4. Insulin has no effect on blood glucose Insulin has no relationship with Glut4, it just signals the blood 61. Jessie decides that she wants to lose weight before the high school prom. She reads a magazine that suggests a diet that cuts out all fat for 30 days. Jessie decides to try this diet so that she can fit into her prom dress. When Jessie decides to try this no-fat diet, which of the following deficiencies may she experience? * 1/1 Iron Glucose Vitamin A Insulin 62. What is the name of this molecule? * 1/1 Phospholipid Triglyceride Trans fatty acid Saturated fatty acid 63. Which of the following is an essential fatty acid? * 1/1 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Option 5 64. How would you describe this fatty acid: CH3(CH2)7CH=CH(CH2)5COOH * 1/1 Long chain unsaturated Long chain saturated Medium chain unsaturated Medium chain saturated Short chain unsaturated Short chain saturated 65. What would be the physical state of this fatty acid at room temperature? CH3(CH2)15COOH * 1/1 Liquid Solid Bilayer Phospholipid 66. Eicosanoids are derived from essential fatty acids and can act as hormones. Which of the following structures could represent the precursor to an eicosanoid? * 1/1 Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 67. What type of bond is highlighted in purple below: * 1/1 Cis Trans Essential Omega-9 68. How many rounds of beta oxidation are required to break down the following fatty acid? * 0/1 10 9 19 20 69. Individuals with long-chain 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase (LCHAD) deficiency are unable to break down long-chain fatty acids. Which of the following is true for these patients? * 1/1 During fasting, these individuals will produce excessive amounts of ketone bodies. They should avoid intake of carbohydrates and instead focus on a high-fat diet. They should ensure that they eat frequently so that their body has adequate supplies of glucose. They will break down CH3(CH2)8CH=CH(CH2)10COOH without a problem. 70. Newborns are tested for a variety of metabolic disorders including Familial Lipoprotein Lipase Deficiency, which is a disease in which the gene that codes for Lipase is deficient. Lipase is the enzyme that breaks down triglycerides. Which of the following would be true for an individual with Familial Lipoprotein Lipase Deficiency? * 1/1 Triglycerides could not be broken down to release fatty acids for beta- oxidation. Triglycerides could not be broken down to release glucose in response to glucagon signaling. Gluconeogenesis could not occur and glucose would have to be taken in from the individual's diet. Amino acids could not be broken down to acetyl-CoA which decrease ATP formed by the electron transport chain.