ITIL v3 Foundation Practice Exam #1.docx new 2021 practice exam solution questions and answers

ITIL v3 Foundation Practice Exam # new 2021 practice exam solution questions and answers 1. What BEST describes a definitive media library (DML)? a) Secure location that holds definitive hardware spares b) Secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media configuration items (CIs) are stored and protected c) Database that contains definitions of all media CIs d) Secure library where definitive authorized versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protected 2. Service transition planning and support is NOT responsible for ______. a) Prioritizing conflicts for service transition resources b) Coordinating the efforts required to manage multiple simultaneous transitions c) Maintaining policies, standards, and models for service transition activities and processes d) Detailed planning of the build and test of individual changes 3. Service catalog management is NOT responsible for ______. a) Ensuring the service catalog contents are accurate b) Ensuring that service level agreements are maintained c) Ensuring that information in the service catalog is consistent with information in the service portfolio d) Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the service catalog 4. What group should review any changes that must be implemented more quickly than can occur through the organization’s normal change process? a) Technical management b) Emergency change advisory board c) Urgent change board d) Urgent change authority 5. What is the correct definition of an outcome? a) A result specific to the clauses in an SLA b) The result of carrying out an activity, following a process, or delivering an IT service c) All the accumulated knowledge of the service provider d) All incidents reported to the service desk 6. What function is responsible for managing a data center? a) Technical management b) Service desk c) Application management d) Facilities management 7. What document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements that your service is measured against achieving? a) Operational level agreement (OLA) b) Capacity plan c) Service level agreement (SLA) d) SLA monitoring chart (SLAM) 8. What is NOT an objective of service level management? a) Defining, documenting, and agreeing on the level of service to be provided b) Monitoring, measuring, and reporting of the actual level of service provided c) Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction d) Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate within 9. What BEST describes partners in the phrase “people, processes, products and partners”? a) Suppliers, manufacturers, and vendors b) Customers c) Internal departments d) The facilities management function 10. What DOES NOT provide value to the business during service strategy? a) Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful b) Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment c) Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages d) Providing a service with high utility and low warranty 11. What should a service always deliver to customers? a) Application b) Infrastructure c) Value d) Resources 12. What does NOT need to be defined as part of EVERY process? a) Roles b) Inputs and outputs c) Functions d) Metrics 13. What is it called when a service delivered between two business units in the same organization? a) Strategic service b) Delivered service c) Internal service d) External service 14. What statement about the service owner is INCORRECT? a) Carries out the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own b) Contributes to continual improvement affecting the service they own c) Is a stakeholder in all of the IT processes that support the service they own d) Is accountable for a specific service within an organization 15. When can you raise or elevate a known error record? a) At any time it would be useful to do so b) After a workaround has been found c) Both A and B d) Neither A nor B 16. What is the BEST definition of IT service management? a) An internal service provider that is embedded within a business unit b) A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customers c) Technical implementation of supporting IT infrastructure components d) The implementation and management of quality services that meet business needs 17. What BEST defines a customer-facing service? a) A service that directly supports the business processes of a customer b) A service that cannot be allowed to fail c) A service that is not covered by a service level agreement d) A service that is not directly used by the business 18. Who is responsible for carrying out activities in a process? a) Process owner b) Change manager c) Service manager d) Process practitioner 19. What process is used to compare the value that a newer service offers over one that is being replaced? a) Availability management b) Capacity management c) Service portfolio management d) Service catalog management 20. What BEST describes the purpose of the Service Operation stage in the service lifecycle? a) To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the service lifecycle b) To proactively prevent all outages to IT services c) To design and build processes that meet business needs d) To deliver and manage IT services at agreed-upon levels to business users and customers 21. What key output is handed over to the service transition team at the end of the service design phase? a) Measurement, methods, and metrics b) Service design package c) Service portfolio design d) Process definitions 22. What do service metrics measure? a) Functions b) Maturity and cost c) End-to-end service d) Infrastructure availability 23. What process would seek to understand levels of customer satisfaction and communicate any plan of action that has been put in place to deal with dissatisfaction? a) Availability management b) Capacity management c) Business relationship management d) Service catalog management 24. What statement below is NOT true concerning the ITIL® framework and its worldwide adoption by many organizations? a) It is vendor-neutral b) It does not prescribe actions c) It represents best practices d) It is a proprietary framework 25. The effective management of risk requires specific types of action. What action would BEST manage risk? a) Training all staff how to identify and manage risk b) Identification and analysis of risk; management of the organization’s exposure to risk c) Control of exposure to risk; investment of capital d) Training of all staff; investment of capital 26. What basic concepts are used in access management? a) Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity b) Rights, access, identity, directory services, service and service components c) Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service d) Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group 27. What process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces, and dependencies of all services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment? a) Service level management b) Service catalog management c) Demand management d) Service transition 28. What process includes business, service, and component sub-processes? a) Capacity management b) Incident management c) Service level management d) Financial management 29. What is NOT an objective of problem management? a) Minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented b) Preventing problems and incidents from occurring c) Eliminating recurring incidents d) Restoring normal service operation as soon as possible 30. What event categories are described in Service Operation? a) Informational, scheduled, normal b) Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency c) Informational, warning, exception d) Warning, reactive, proactive 31. What process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure? a) Service level management b) IT operations management c) Capacity management d) Incident management 32. What is NOT an aim of the change management process? a) To ensure the impact of changes are understood b) To ensure that changes are recorded and evaluated c) To ensure that all changes to configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management System d) To deliver and manage IT services at agreed-upon levels to business users 33. What activity is NOT performed by a service desk? a) Logging details of incidents and service requests b) Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis c) Restoring service d) Implementing all standard changes 34. What is TRUE about incident reporting and logging? a) Incidents can only be reported by users b) Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruption or potential disruption to normal service c) All service desk calls must be logged as incidents d) Incidents reported by technical staff must also be logged as problems 35. Service design emphasizes the importance of the "Four Ps". This includes Partners, People, Processes and ______. a) Profit b) Preparation c) Products d) Potential 36. What stage of the service lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives? a) Service Design b) Service transition c) Continual improvement d) Service operation 37. What two processes contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection? a) Incident and financial management b) Change and release and deployment management c) Incident and event management d) Knowledge and service level management 38. What process or function utilizes personnel to monitor events in an operation's bridge or network operations center? a) Technical management b) IT Operations Management c) Request fulfillment d) Applications management 39. Which database records all possible service improvements? a) CSI Register b) Known error database c) Capacity management information system d) Configuration Management database 40. What type of communication should functions utilize within service operation stage? a) Communication between data center shifts b) Communication related to changes c) Performance reporting d) Routine operational communication