Nursing School Entrance Exams Prep 2019–2020 Practice Test Three, HESI. With Answer Key and Answer Explanations

Nursing School Entrance Exams Prep 2019–2020 Practice Test Three, HESI. With Answer Key and Answer Explanations READING COMPREHENSION Questions 1–10 are based on the following passage, which was written in 1992 by France Bequette, a writer who specializes in environmental issues. The ozone layer, the fragile layer of gas surrounding our planet between 7 and 30 miles above the Earth’s surface, is being rapidly depleted. Seasonally occurring holes have appeared in it over the Poles and, recently, over densely populated temperate regions of the northern hemisphere. The threat is serious because the ozone layer protects the Earth from the sun’s ultraviolet radiation, which is harmful to all living organisms. Even though the layer is many miles thick, the atmosphere in it is tenuous and the total amount of ozone, compared with other atmospheric gases, is small. Ozone is highly reactive to chlorine, hydrogen, and nitrogen. Of these, chlorine is the most dangerous since it is very stable and long-lived. When chlorine compounds reach the stratosphere, they bond with and destroy ozone molecules, with consequent repercussions for life on Earth. In 1958, researchers began noticing seasonal variations in the ozone layer above the South Pole. Between June and October the ozone content steadily fell, followed by a sudden increase in November. These fluctuations appeared to result from the natural effects of wind and temperature. But while the low October levels remained constant until 1979, the total ozone content over the Pole was steadily diminishing. In 1985, public opinion was finally roused by reports of a ―hole‖ in the layer. The culprits responsible for the hole were identified as compounds known as chlorofluorocarbons, or CFCs. CFCs are compounds of chlorine and fluorine. Nonflammable, nontoxic, and noncorrosive, theyhave been widely used in industry since the 1950s, mostly as refrigerants and propellants and in making plastic foam and insulation. In 1989 CFCs represented a sizeable market valued at over $1.5 billion and a labor force of 1.6 million. But with CFCs implicated in ozone depletion, the question arose as to whether we were willing to risk an increase in cases of skin cancer, eye ailments, even a lowering of the human immune defense system—all effects of further loss of the ozone layer. And not only humans would suffer. So would plant life. Phytoplankton, the first link in the ocean food chain and vital to the survival of most marine species, would not be able to survive near the ocean surface, which is where these organisms grow. In 1990, 70 countries agreed to stop producing CFCs by the year 2000. In late 1991, however, scientists noticed a depletion of the ozone layer over the Arctic. In 1992 it was announced that the layer was depleting faster than expected and that it was also declining over the northern hemisphere. Scientists believe that natural events are making the problem worse. The Pinatubo volcano in the Philippines, which erupted in June 1991, released 12 million tons of damaging volcanic gases into the atmosphere. Even if the whole world agreed today to stop all production and use of CFCs, this would not solve the problem. A single chlorine molecule can destroy 10,000–100,000 molecules of ozone. Furthermore, CFCs have a lifespan of 75–400 years and they take ten years to reach the ozone layer. In other words, what we are experiencing today results from CFCs emitted ten years ago. Researchers are working hard to find substitute products. Some are too dangerous because they are highly flammable; others may prove to be toxic and to contribute to the greenhouse effect—to the process of global warming. Nevertheless, even if here is no denying that the atmosphere is in a state of disturbance, nobody can say that the situation will not improve, either in the short or the long term, especially if we ourselves lend a hand. 1. Which is the main idea of the second paragraph? (A) The ozone layer is fragile and needs protection. (B) Ozone is highly reactive to chlorine, hydrogen, and nitrogen. (C) Chlorine compounds pose a significant risk to the ozone layer.(D) Chlorine is stable and long-lived. 2. Which is the meaning of the word repercussions as used inthe second paragraph? (A) Conclusions. (B) Effects. (C) Injuries. (D) Questions. 3. Which information is not given as a detail in the passage? (A)CFCs take ten years to reach the ozone layer. (B)Phytoplankton live near the surface of the ocean. (C)Loss of the ozone layer could lead to an increase in skin cancer rates. (D) CFCs were phased out as a result of the Montreal Protocol. 4. Which answer option is the best summary of the passage? (A)The ozone layer is located between 7 and 30 miles above the surface of the Earth, and it is in danger as a consequence of global warming. (B)Depletion of the ozone layer can lead to higher rates of skin cancer and widespread loss of ocean life, and banning CFCs will help solve this problem. (C)The ozone layer is at risk of significant depletion due to the presence CFCs in the atmosphere, even if further CFC use were to stop completely. However, humans can improve the situation if they rise to the challenge. (D)CFCs are chemical compounds widely used in refrigerants and propellants. The compounds are dangerous to the ozone layer but represent more than $1.5 billion in revenue to plastics and chemical companies. 5. Why does the author mention phytoplankton in the fifth paragraph?(A)To show that a depleted ozone layer affects more than just humans. (B) To show how fragile ocean life can be. (C) To compare the value of marine species to the value of CFCs. (D) To explain where much of the planet’s photosynthesis occurs. 6. Which is the author’s primary purpose in writing this piece? (A)To convince readers to stop using CFCs. (B)To inform readers about the dangers of CFCs. (C)To argue that the planet is warming due to a depleted ozone layer. (D) To explain the nature of the ozone layer. 7. Which statement is an opinion? (A)The ozone layer has shown steady depletion for several decades. (B)Chlorine-based compounds can be especially dangerous to the ozone layer because of chlorine’s stability and longevity. (C)CFCs represented more than $1.5 billion in market value in 1989. (D)CFCs pose a greater long-term threat to human well-being than any other risk factor. 8. Which detail supports the idea that CFCs pose a long-term threatto the ozone layer? (A)A single chlorine molecule can destroy 10,000–100,000 ozone molecules. (B) CFCs have been in wide use since the 1950s. (C)CFCs have a lifespan of 75–400 years and take ten years to reach the ozone layer. (D)The ozone layer protects the Earth from the sun’s ultraviolet radiation.9. Why does the author mention the Arctic in the sixth paragraph? (A)To illustrate how ozone depletion has worsened and spread. (B)To provide a counterargument to the idea that ozone depletion is a global problem. (C)To show that natural phenomena can also play a role in ozone depletion. (D) To explain how weather patterns affect the ozone layer. 10. Which is the meaning of the word fluctuations as used inthe second paragraph? (A) Damages. (B) Depletions. (C) Variations. (D) Uncertainties. VOCABULARY 1. Select the meaning of the underlined word in thefollowing sentence. Through simple diffusion, oxygen can permeate the cell membrane. (A) Pass through. (B) Dissolve. (C) Damage. (D) Reinforce. 2. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence. After tests were completed, he was told that the growth on his leg was benign.(A) Spreading. (B) Cancerous. (C) Harmless. (D) Common. 3. Which is the best definition of the word vascular? (A) Pertaining to breathing. (B) Pertaining to blood vessels. (C) Pertaining to dementia. (D) Pertaining to the heart. 4. Select the meaning of the underlined word in thefollowing sentence. After noting that the patient’s mood was labile, the nursediscovered that he had stopped taking his prescribed antipsychotic medication. (A) Elevated. (B) Depressed. (C) Hostile. (D) Unstable. 5. Which word meaning ―provided evidence against‖ best fits inthe sentence? The patient’s continued dizziness and slurred speech his discharge from the hospital. (A) Conducted. (B) Contraindicated. (C) Contracted. (D) Constricted. 6. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the followingsentence. Although the victim was struck by a cyclist at high speed, she was ambulatory when she arrived at the emergency room. (A) Able to walk. (B) Able to be carried. (C) Losing consciousness. (D) Transported by a vehicle. 7. Which is the best definition of the word transdermal? (A) Through or by way of the skin. (B) Through or by way of the mouth. (C) Through or by way of the blood. (D) Through or by way of the extremities. 8. Which word meaning ―sample‖ best fits in the sentence? The nurse took the patient’s tissue to the lab for testing. (A) Necropsy. (B) Specimen. (C) Example. (D) Spectrum. 9. Which is the best definition of the word therapeutic? (A) Toxic. (B) Prescribed. (C) Additional. (D) Curative. 10. Which word meaning ―open‖ best fits in the following sentence?The nurse had to ensure that the victim maintained a/an airway during the procedure. (A) Occluded. (B) Constricted. (C) Patent. (D) Latent. GRAMMAR 1. Which sentence is grammatically correct? (A) There are not nearly enough sterile needles to administer the vaccination to everyone. (B) Despite the doctor’s warning, he was not ready for the strong affects of the medication. (C) Her and me both took patients up to Radiology at around the same time. (D) The couple claimed that the unattended backpack turned in to the reception desk was their’s. 2. Select the best words for the blanks in the following sentence. Anyone who drive a manual transmission vehicle also be able to drive an automatic transmission vehicle. (A) Shall; shall not. (B) Might; must not. (C) Should; can. (D) Can; should. 3. Which word is used incorrectly in this sentence? The difference among ibuprofen and aspirin is significant, particularly with regard to side effects.(A) Difference. (B) Among. (C) Is. (D) With. 4. Which sentence is grammatically incorrect? (A) The gurney which was in the hallway belonged to the ambulance service, while the gurney in the drop-off bay belonged to the hospital. (B) There was a large amount of paperwork still incomplete when he was admitted. (C) Hannah thought she did badly on her test, but she ended up scoring near the top of her class. (D) The nurse read off the list of potential side effects to the blind patient. 5. Which word from the following sentence is an adverb? Gerry often found himself checking in with other night-shift staff during his off-hours. (A) Often. (B) In. (C) Other. (D) During. 6. Which word is used incorrectly in this sentence? The patients in the urgent care facility had been waiting forhours and was growing impatient. (A) Facility. (B) Had. (C) Waiting.(D) Was. 7. Which word from the following sentence is a conjunction? The nurse could not find an available examination room, so he conducted the screening in an empty office. (A) Could. (B) Available. (C) So. (D) In. 8. Which sentence contains sexist language? (A) The man helped the elderly woman complete her medical history forms. (B) If a fireman wants to stand a good chance of survival, he needs to have properly maintained safety equipment. (C) The server presented the lunch bill to Harvey, even though Sandra was the manager of the department. (D) If a person is interested in becoming a medical examiner, he or she should research the amount of schooling required for such a job. 9. Select the best word for the blank in the following sentence. Ms. Parker was the patient medication was incorrectly dosed. (A) Who. (B) Whom. (C) Who’s. (D) Whose. 10. Which word from the following sentence is a preposition?The third-shift crew all arrived very late, but within ten minutesof each other. (A) All. (B) Very. (C) Within. (D) Each. MATHEMATICS 1. The number 16 is 25% of which number? (A) 4 (B) 48 (C) 64 (D) 96 2. Which is written as a percent? (A) 32% (B) 37.5% (C) 42.5% (D) 45% 3. Convert the following 12-hour clock time to military time:7:41:23 PM (A) 07:41:23 hours (B) 17:41:23 hours (C) 19:41:23 hours (D) 20:41:23 hours 4. Solve for x: −2x + 3 = x − 15(A) −6 (B) −3 (C) 3 (D) 6 5. Which ratio accurately expresses ? (A) 3:8 (B) 5:9 (C) 6:18 (D) 9:33 6. Which answer option is 0.75 expressed as a fraction? (A) (B) (C) (D) 7. What is ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 8. What is ? (A) (B)(C) (D) 9. Solve for x: 5x − 7 = x + 5 (A) −4 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 12 10. If x = 5, y = 8, and z = 10, what is the value of the expression x2 + 3(y − z)? (A) 19 (B) 31 (C) 39 (D) 79 BIOLOGY 1. Which of these is a distinguishing characteristic of eukaryotic cells? (A) The ability to reproduce. (B) A defined, membrane-enclosed nucleus. (C) An outer cell membrane. (D) The presence of ribosomes for protein production. 2. Which is the best definition of mitosis? (A) The simplest form of asexual reproduction. (B) A five-stage process of cell division. (C) A process that mainly occurs in mammals. (D) The process used for sex cell production.3. Which answer option is not one of the four nitrogenous bases of DNA? (A) Adenine. (B) Cholosyne. (C) Guanine. (D) Thymine. 4. In the scientific method, which step comes first? (A) Conclusion. (B) Experiment. (C) Hypothesis. (D) Observation. 5. Which is the most inclusive level of classification? (A) Class. (B) Family. (C) Phylum. (D) Species. CHEMISTRY 1. Which statement about bases is true? (A) They are electron donors. (B) They are electron acceptors. (C) They are proton donors. (D) They are proton acceptors. 2. Which is the process by which the liver can create glucose from proteins and fats?(A) Glycolysis. (B) Gluconeogenesis. (C) Double replacement. (D) Oxidative phosphorylation. 3. Which is the simplest form of a carbohydrate? (A) Disaccharide. (B) Monosaccharide. (C) Oligosaccharide. (D) Polysaccharide. 4. To which other DNA base is adenine always bound? (A) Cytosine. (B) Deoxyribose. (C) Guanine. (D) Thymine. 5. Which statement about redox reactions is true? (A)Oxidation involves the loss of electrons, while reduction involves the gain of electrons. (B)Oxidation involves the gain of electrons, while reduction involves the loss of electrons. (C) A substance that is oxidized gains a positive charge. (D)An element in its natural state can have a positive or negative charge. ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 1. If a patient is described as having a distal leg fracture, where isthe injury most likely to be located?(A) At the top of the thigh. (B) Along the outside of the thigh. (C) Near the ankle. (D) Near the knee. 2. Which tissue is not one of the four fundamental tissues of the human body? (A) Connective tissue. (B) Epithelial tissue. (C) Cardiac tissue. (D) Nerve tissue. 3. Which anatomical system creates blood cells and stores minerals? (A) Digestive system. (B) Endocrine system. (C) Muscular system. (D) Skeletal system. 4. Which is the outermost layer of the epidermis called? (A) Stratum basale. (B) Stratum corneum. (C) Stratum granulosum. (D) Stratum spinosum. 5. Which structure is part of the peripheral nervous system? (A) Cerebellum. (B) Optic nerve. (C) Spinal cord. (D) Vagus nerve.PHYSICS 1. A car travels for 15 minutes and covers a distance of 27 kilometers. Which is the average speed of the car? (A) 3.0 m/s (B) 18 m/s (C) 30 m/s (D) 40.5 m/s 2. A skateboard is rolled down a large hill. Its initial speed is 2 m/s, and it travels down the hill for 30 seconds. The skateboard’s final speed is 8 m/s. Which is the magnitude of the skateboard’s acceleration? (A) 0.2 m/s2 (B) 0.33 m/s2 (C) 1.5 m/s2 (D) 2 m/s2 3. A box with a mass of 10 kg rests on a frictionless surface. The box is being pushed to the north by a force of 36N, while another forceof 48N pushes the box to the south. Which is the magnitude of acceleration of the box? (A) 0.12 m/s2 (B) 0.84 m/s2 (C) 1.2 m/s2 (D) 8.4 m/s2 4. In waves, the maximum displacement from equilibrium known as which of these? (A) Amplitude.(B) Crest. (C) Frequency. (D) Wavelength. 5. A circuit contains several resistors placed in series. If the circuit is wired to a 200-V power supply and the current is measured at 4 amps, which is the total resistance in the circuit? (A) 20 ohms (B) 50 ohms (C) 100 ohms (D) 800 ohms Practice Test Three: Answer Key Reading Comprehension 1. C 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. C Vocabulary 1. A 2. C 3. B4. D 5. B 6. A 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. C Grammar 1. A 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. B 9. D 10. C Mathematics 1. C 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. A Biology 1. B2. B 3. B 4. D 5. C Chemistry 1. D 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. A Anatomy and Physiology 1. C 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. D Physics 1. C 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. BAnswers and Explanations Reading Comprehension 1. C The main idea of the paragraph is to show that chlorine compounds are especially dangerous to the ozone layer. The ozone layer’s fragility and need for protection (A), ozone’s high reactivity to other atmospheric gases (B), and the stability and longevity of chlorine(D) all that support this main idea. 2. B The word repercussions is closest in meaning to ―effects.‖ 3. D The Montreal Protocol is not mentioned in the passage. 4. C The passage is about CFCs and their harmful effects on the atmosphere, as well as potential human efforts to reverse the damage. The first three paragraphs describe the harmful effects of CFCs, and the final four paragraphs describe the challenges in stopping their use. All the answer choices include details from the passage, but only (C) includes these ―big picture‖ ideas that make up the most important elements of the passage. 5. A Just before the author mentions phytoplankton, she states that ―not only humans would suffer.‖ The paragraph does not discuss the fragility of ocean life (B), the economic value of marine species (C),or the proportion of the planet’s photosynthesis undertaken by phytoplankton (D).6. B The author does not try to persuade readers not to use CFCs (A), because these compounds are already being phased out. The author also does not present any argument regarding global warming (C). While the author does explain the nature of the ozone layer (D), the primary purpose of this essay is to describe how CFCs threaten the ozone layer. 7. D The statements about the steady depletion of ozone (A), theparticular destructiveness of chlorine-based compounds on ozone (B), and the market value of CFCs (C) can be measured and verified as fact. By contrast, the assertion that CFCs pose a long-term threat to humans greater than any other (D) is a subjective interpretation. 8. C Only (C) mentions the long-term nature of CFCs, which last 75–400 years. The other options relate to the destructive power of achlorine molecule (A), the widespread use of CFCs (B), and the insulating properties of the ozone layer (D). 9. A The sixth paragraph focuses on how the problem of ozone depletion is getting worse, and the information about the Arctic is a detail that supports the main idea of the paragraph. 10. C The word fluctuations is closest in meaning to ―variations.‖ Vocabulary 1. A The word permeate means ―pass through.‖2. C The word benign means ―harmless.‖ 3. B The word vascular can technically refer to other vessels as well, but is most often used to describe blood vessels. 4. D The word labile means ―changing‖ or ―unstable.‖ 5. B The meaning ―provided evidence against‖ is best represented by the word contraindicated. 6. A The word ambulatory means ―able to walk.‖ 7. A The word transdermal means ―through or by way of the skin.‖ 8. B The meaning ―sample‖ is best represented by the word specimen. 9. D The word therapeutic is best represented by the definition ―curative.‖ 10. C The meaning ―open‖ is best represented by the word patent. Grammar1. A Choice (B) uses the incorrect word affect; effect would be correct in this context. (C) incorrectly uses the objective pronouns Her and me as the subject of the sentence; the subjective pronouns She and I are needed instead. (D) includes an unnecessary apostrophe in theirs. 2. D The answer choices in this question are all modal auxiliary verbs; they work with the existing verbs in the sentence to express possibility or obligation. Reading the sentence, can and should are the auxiliary verbs that make the most logical sense; the use of ―be able to drive‖ in the second half of the sentence indicates that should makes more sense there as an expression of likelihood, so (D) is correct. 3. B The preposition among should be used in reference to three or more nouns. In this sentence, there are only two nouns (ibuprofen and aspirin), so the correct preposition is between. 4. A The word which is used incorrectly; it should be replaced with the word that. The clause ―that/which was in the hallway‖ is a nonrestrictive clause; it is essential to describing the gurney, distinguishing it from the other gurney in the drop-off bay. For nonrestrictive clauses, that should be used to introduce the clause. 5. A Often is considered an adverb of frequency, because it describes the rate at which something occurs. The words in (B) and during (D) are prepositions; other (C) is used as an adjective in this sentence. 6. D The subject of the sentence is ―patients,‖ which is a plural noun. Forsubject-verb agreement, the sentence requires the plural verb form were, not was (which is the singular form of the verb to be). 7. C Conjunctions are used to connect clauses, as so does in this sentence. Could (A) is a verb; available (B) is an adjective; in (D) isa preposition. 8. B The firefighter in the sentence is a hypothetical person rather than a specific person; using the male pronoun he in this situation is sexist, because it assumes that every firefighter who might exist is male. (A) and (B) describe behavior that might be regarded as sexist, but they do not use sexist language. (D) uses neutral language (he or she). 9. D The sentence refers to medication belonging to the patient, so the possessive pronoun whose is correct. The word who (A) is a subjective pronoun; whom (B) is an objective pronoun; and who’s (C) can be used as a contraction standing for the words who is. 10. C The word within is a preposition, which is a part of speech indicating the position or relation between things. Both all (A) and each (D)are adjectives, which modify nouns; very (B) is an adverb, the part of speech that modifies a verb. Mathematics 1. C 25% is the same as 0.25, so the equation can be rewritten as 0.25x = 16. Therefore, x = 64. 2. B. Dividing 3 by 8 yields 0.375, which is equivalent to 37.5%. 3. C For times between noon and midnight, you must add 1200 to the 12- hour clock time. Therefore, 7:41:23 PM is equivalent to 19:41:23 hours. 4. D Subtracting x from both sides of the equation yields −3x + 3 = − 15. Subtracting 3 from each side yields −3x = −18. Dividing by −3 yields x = 6. 5. A The proportion 9:24 is not listed as an answer choice, so reduce the fraction to the simpler term . The fraction is equivalent to the proportion 3:8. 6. C Because 0.75 is equivalent to , you can reduce the fraction to Although this is not an answer choice, one of the answer choices, , can also be reduced to . 7. D 8. B 9. C Subtracting x from both sides yields 4x − 7 = 5. Adding 7 to each sideyields 4x = 12. Therefore, x = 3. 10. A Substituting the given values yields 52 + 3(8 − 10) = 25 + 3(−2) = 25 − 6 = 19. Biology 1. B What distinguishes eukaryotic cells from prokaryotic cells is adefined, membrane-enclosed nucleus. Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have the ability to reproduce (A), an outer membrane (C), and ribosomes (D). 2. B Mitosis is a five-stage process of cell division that results in two daughter cells identical to the original cell. The simplest form of asexual reproduction (A) is binary fission. Mitosis occurs in mammals, but also occurs in most other plants and animals, making (C) incorrect. The process used for sex cell production (D) is meiosis. 3. B The four nitrogenous bases of DNA are adenine (A), guanine (C),and thymine (D), and cytosine (not cholosyne). 4. D The first step of the scientific process is observation. It is followed by forming a hypothesis (C), conducting an experiment (B), and reaching a conclusion (A). 5. C Phylum is the most inclusive level of the available answer choices offered. From most to least inclusive, the eight levels of biologicalclassification are: domain, kingdom, phylum (C), class (A), order, family (B), genus, species (D). Chemistry 1. D Bases are proton acceptors, while acids are proton donors. 2. B Gluconeogenesis is the process by which the liver creates glucose from proteins and fats. Glycolysis (A) is the process of breaking down glucose. Double replacement (C) occurs when two ionic compounds switch the elements they are bound to as part of a chemical reaction, creating two new ionic compounds. Oxidative phosphorylation (D) is a step in glycolysis during which pyruvate is broken down to create ATP, water, and carbon dioxide. 3. B Although disaccharides (A), oligosaccharides (C), and polysaccharides (D) are also carbohydrates, monosaccharides are the simplest form of carbohydrate. 4. D In DNA, adenine and thymine (D) are always bound to each other, while cytosine (A) is always bound to guanine (C). Deoxyribose (B) is a monosaccharide that is integral to the structure of DNA molecules. 5. A A redox reaction is one in which electrons are transferred between elements. Oxidation always involves electron loss, while reduction always involves electron gain. A substance that is oxidized actually becomes more negatively charged. Elements in their natural stateare electrically neutral, meaning the number of protons and electrons is equal.Anatomy and Physiology 1. C ―Distal‖ means away from the point of attachment of a limb, so adistal leg fracture would be located near the ankle (C), not at the top of the thigh (A), outside the thigh (B), or near the knee (D). 2. C Cardiac tissue (C) is not one of the four fundamental tissues. Thefour fundamental tissues are connective tissue (A), epithelial tissue (B), nerve tissue (D), and muscle tissue. 3. D The skeletal system performs a wide variety of functions, including production of blood cells (in marrow) and the storage of mineralslike calcium (in bone). 4. B The stratum corneum is the outermost layer of the epidermis,followed by the stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum (C), stratum spinosum (D), and stratum basale (A). 5. D The vagus nerve is part of the peripheral nervous system, while the cerebellum (A), optic nerve (B), and spinal cord (C) are considered part of the central nervous system. Physics 1. C Average speed is equal to distance divided by time. The answer options give rates in meters per second, so the units in the initialproblem must be converted: 15 minutes × 60 seconds/minute = 900 seconds; 27 kilometers × 1,000 meters/kilometer = 27,000 meters. To solve the problem, reduce to simplest terms: 27,000 meters divided by 900 seconds = 30 m/s. 2. B Acceleration is calculated as the change in velocity divided by the change in time (amount of time measured). The change in velocity is 6 m/s (8 m/s − 2 m/s), and the change in time is 30 seconds. To solve the problem, reduce to simplest terms: 6 divided by 30 = 0.33 m/s2. 3. C Acceleration is calculated as the net force on an object divided by the object’s mass. The net force on the box is 48N minus 36N, or 12N. To solve the problem, reduce to simplest terms: 12 divided by 10 = 1.2 m/s2. 4. A The maximum displacement from equilibrium in a wave is known as its amplitude. The crest (B) is the maximum displacement in one direction; frequency (C) refers to the number of crests passing a given point within a specific time frame; and wavelength (D) refers to the distance between crests. 5. B Resistance (in ohms) is calculated as the voltage divided by the current (in amperes, or amps). In this problem, 200 volts divided by4 amps = 50 ohms.