BIOLOGY 1113 Chapter 29 quizlet (GRADED A) /(Atom, Proton, Chemical bond, infection e) Questions and Answers | 100% GUARANTEED ACE.

BIOLOGY 1113 Chapter 29 quizlet Lymphatic tissue closely associated with the bloodstream as well as lymphatic circulation is found in the: a) tonsils. b) thymus. c) spleen. d) intestine. e) bo ne marrow. c Antibodies are produced by plasma cells and regulatory T cells. True False true Cells that help initiate the adaptive immune response by placing microbial antigens on their surfaces are generally referred to as: a) helper T cells. b) regulatory T cells. c) B cells. d) mast cells. e) antigen-presenting cells. e Signaling proteins that alert the immune system an infection is present and that sometimes directly fight pathogens are the: a) complement proteins. b) antihistamines. c) antibodies. d) cytokines. e) histamines. d Which of the following would best be defined in part as an immune system overreaction? a) chronic disease b) cell-mediated response c) autoimmune disease d) cytotoxic T cell action e) allergies e Infected body cells can self-identify for destruction by the immune system by: a) releasing histamine. b) placing fragments of the infectious agent on their surfaces. c) reshaping their membranes into a pattern that B cells recognize. d) becoming dendritic cells. e) secreting hormones that stimulate macrophages. b B cells are the main cells of the cell-mediated pathway. True False false Therapy involving Toll-Like Receptors may be useful in treating some autoimmune disorders and cancers. True False true Macrophages and dendritic cells can both be antigen presenting cells. True False true Any substance that can cause an immune response is a/an: a) antibody. b) nonspecific defense. c) interferon. d) antigen. e) microbe. d Stomach acid is one of our natural defenses against bacteria in food. True False true CD4 and CD8 T cells are likely to become active when they: a) travel through the spleen. b) are attracted by the inflammatory response. c) travel through lymph nodes. d) interact with B-cells. e) dock with a dendritic cell with a matching antigen. e Smallpox vaccines used today are heat-killed cowpox viruses. True False false What is the explanation for why B cells come in so many different types that can produce so many different antibodies? a) B cells have gene fragments that can shuffle or recombine. b) B cells can recombine their genes with T cells. c) The genome of B cells is much larger than other body cells. d) B cells can regulate shape to match the antigen. e) B cells can recombine their genes with the pathogen. a Which of the following best describes the role of regulatory T cells? a) Regulatory T cells stabilize and support memory cells. b) Regulatory T cells are a kind of helper T cell that stimulates cytotoxic T cells. c) Regulatory T cells help limit the immune system response. d) Regulatory T cells are a kind of helper T cell that stimulates B cells. e) Regulatory T cells stimulate natural killer cells to attack tumors. c Which statement about the B cells' abilities to produce antibodies is most accurate? a) B cells wait to encounter an antigen and then copy it. b) There may be 100 million different B-cells, each producing a different antibody. c) Most B cells are capable of producing any kind of antibody. d) There are no B cells until an antigen is encountered. e) B cells don't produce antibodies until they develop in the thymus. b Why does producing a large "clone" of activated T cells also provide long-term immunity? a) Leftover antibodies last a long time. b) More cells are produced than necessary. c) Some of the T cells become memory cells. d) Some of the T cells can become B cells. e) The cloned cells are stronger than the original cells. c The lymphocyte group that includes both CD4 receptor "helper" and CD8 receptor "killer" cells would be the: a) macrophages. b) dendritic cells. c) mast cells. d) B-cells. e) T-cells. e A plasma cell is a cell that has differentiated from a: a) B cell. b) mast cell. c) dendritic cell. d) T cell. a Attaching an antibody to an antigen so that the antigen cannot attach to anything else is referred to as: a) antigen presentation. b) agglutination. c) neutralization. d) coagulation. c The natural killer (NK) cell specializes in attacking bacteria. True False false Antibodies may help phagocytes grab and ingest bacteria. True False true Which part of the innate response can sometimes kill bacteria outright but mainly speeds up metabolism, improving the immune response? a) fever b) histamine c) macrophage attack d) protective immunity e) fibrin a Helper T cells: 1. facilitate adaptive response 2. are B cells that make antibodies 3. limit the immune response 4. directly kill cells 5. are antigen-presenting cells1 Regulatory T cells: 1. facilitate adaptive response 2. are B cells that make antibodies 3. limit the immune response 4. directly kill cells 5. are antigen-presenting cells3 Cytotoxic T cells: 1. facilitate adaptive response 2. are B cells that make antibodies 3. limit the immune response 4. directly kill cells 5. are antigen-presenting cells4 Dendritic cells: 1. facilitate adaptive response 2. are B cells that make antibodies 3. limit the immune response 4. directly kill cells 5. are antigen-presenting cells5 Plasma cells: 1. facilitate adaptive response 2. are B cells that make antibodies 3. limit the immune response 4. directly kill cells 5. are antigen-presenting cells2 Lymph "glands" (nodes) swelling is a sign that an infection is present. True False true The response that targets specific (and only specific) pathogens is the: a) adaptive immune response. b) barrier to infection. c) innate response. d) phagocytosis response. e) inflammatory response. a Lymphocytes and other white blood cells are produced in the: a) lymph nodes. b) bone marrow. c) heart. d) thymus gland. b There are different Toll-Like Receptors for bacteria and viruses. True False true Complement proteins are antibodies produced by skin cells. True False false AIDS is an autoimmune disease. True False false What do many of the different kinds of allergies have in common? a) They result in high blood pressure. b) All allergens are living things. c) They cause histamine release. d) They contribute to autoimmune disorders. c Which part of the immune system does not target specific microbial invaders? a) antigens b) specific defense c) innate response d) antibodies c An antigen is any foreign substance that elicits an immune response. True False true Histamine causes which of the following? a) TLR production b) complement protein production c) increased permeability and dilation of blood vessels d) the anti-inflammatory response e) antibody production c Which of the following cells release histamine? a) lymphocytes b) dendritic cells c) eosinophils d) mast cells d Phagocytes can ingest pathogens, cells, and cell parts in the body. True False true Which of the following best describes the place adaptive immunity occupies in the animal kingdom? a) All animals except sponges have adaptive immunity. b) Only vertebrates, echinoderms, and mollusks have adaptive immunity. c) Only mammals have adaptive immunity. d) Only vertebrates have adaptive immunity. e) Only humans have adaptive immunity. d Once you have had a primary exposure to a specific antigen and encounter this antigen again, you will mount a rapid immune response due to: a) cytotoxic T cells. b) antibodies. c) memory cells. d) antigen-presenting cells. c Lymphocytes that become part of cell-mediated immunity arm of the adaptive immune response develop in the: a) spleen. b) intestine. c) bone marrow. d) lymph nodes. e) thymus. e Why may a transplanted organ be rejected by the immune system? a) The organ contains different T cells. b) The organ contains different B cells. c) The immune system produces a severe allergic response. d) The organ has non-self surface recognition molecules. e) The organ contains different blood antigens. d The virus HIV, which causes AIDS, infects: a) T cells. b) mast cells. c) B cells. d) phagocytes. a Which cells in the immune system produce memory cells? a) lymphocytes b) eosinophils c) mast cells d) dendritic cells a The skin serves as which type of defense against pathogens? a) innate response b) adaptive immunity c) complement d) protective immunity e) barrier to infection e Which of the following is an autoimmune disease that affects women in far greater numbers than men? a) lupus b) type 1 diabetes c) AIDS d) allergies a Which of the following is not true of antibodies? a) T cells produce antibodies. b) Antibodies are secreted by plasma cells. c) Vaccines can stimulate production of antibodies. d) There are many different kinds of antibodies. e) Antibodies bind to antigens. a Helpful bacteria that produce lactic acid would be a defense found in which part of the body? a) skin b) female reproductive tract c) respiratory tract d) urinary tract e) stomach a Dendritic cells are the histamine-producing cells of the immune system. True False false Immune therapy research with potential to work in alleviating both organ rejection and autoimmune disease involves: a) regulatory T cells. b) cytotoxic T cell action. c) vaccines. d) antibodies. a Which of the following would be best categorized as a phagocyte? a) dendritic cell b) mast cell c) eosinophil d) lymphocyte c B cell receptors are specific to only one antigen. True False true Cells in the body that have been infected by a virus or bacteria are specifically killed by: a) dendritic cells. b) mast cells. c) regulatory T cells. d) cytotoxic T cells. e) cytotoxic B cells. d What does it mean when we say a vaccine is based on an "attenuated" virus? a) The vaccine is a live virus that has been heat-killed. b) The vaccine is a live virus that has been chemically damaged. c) The vaccine isn't the virus at all, just similar-shaped chemicals. d) The vaccine is based on a virus that has been rendered harmless by lab-induced mutation. e) The vaccine is a similar species to the virus that isn't harmful (e.g., cowpox for smallpox). d Cytokines are molecules that cut holes in bacterial membranes. True False false Clumping of antibodies and antigens is referred to as: a) neutralization. b) agglutination. c) antigen presentation. d) coagulation. b Lymphocytes that become part of antibody-mediated immunity arm of the adaptive immune response develop in the: a) spleen. b) intestine. c) thymus. d) bone marrow. e) lymph nodes. d Which part of the innate response cuts holes in the cell membranes of pathogens? a) histamines b) complement proteins c) fibrin d) antibodies e) cytokines b Place the following in proper sequence regarding activation of the cell-mediated response: (1) dendritic cell migrates to lymph node, (2) T cells divide rapidly, (3) dendritic cell ingests pathogen, (4) CD4 and CD8 cells dock with dendritic cell, (5) dendritic cell presents antigen on its surface. a) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4 b) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2 c) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2 d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 e) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 b The lymphocyte group that includes antibody-producing cells would be the: a) T-cells. b) mast cells. c) B-cells. d) dendritic cells. e) macrophages. c T cells develop in the thalamus. True False false AIDS has become a more manageable illness in developed countries in recent years due to: a) general resistance in the human population. b) declining disease rates in most areas of the world. c) vaccines. d) medications that keep HIV from copying itself. e) changes in the viral genome. d T cells are a type of lymphocyte. True False true In which type of response are Toll-Like Receptors (TLR's) important to pathogens? a) complement response b) barrier to infection c) adaptive immunity d) innate response e) protective immunity d We use the scientific method every day. Imagine your car doesn't start one morning before school. Which of these is a reasonable hypothesis regarding the problem? a) Add a quart of oil. b) I'm going to be late. c) I'm out of gas. d) Check to see whether your lights were left on all night. c The questions that can be answered by science are: a) without limit. b) limited by what is found in the living world. c) limited by religious doctrine. d) limited only be imagination. e) limited by what can be investigated using the scientific method. e Tissues are grouped together in functional units called: a) organelles. b) organs. c) cells. d) organisms. b It doesn't matter whether a hypothesis is correct or not when it is first stated. True False true A good hypothesis must: a) lead to a question. b) be falsifiable. c) be false. d) be theoretical. e) be true. b The physicist Freeman Dyson made which of the following predictions? a) Within 50 years, the human species would become extinct. b) Within 50 years, the energy crisis would be solved. c) Within 50 years, global warming would make the Earth unlivable. d) Within 50 years, gardeners would be able to design their own roses and orchids. d Which of the following is the most complex level of organization? a) a water molecule b) a rainforest c) the circulatory system d) a heart b The difference between a theory and a hypothesis is that: a) a theory must be proven beyond a shadow of a doubt. b) a hypothesis must be supported by evidence. c) a hypothesis must be proven beyond a shadow of a doubt. d) a theory must be supported by evidence. d Which of the following could be considered a scientific principle? a) The height of Americans has been steadily increasing over the past 30 years. b) Leaves bend toward the light because they sense light is needed to grow. c) Radioactive isotopes can be used as tracers in medicine because radioactive isotopes behave the same as other isotopes. d) Biology is a more exact science than chemistry. c Which scientist proved that the theory of spontaneous generation is untrue? a) Watson b) Einstein c) Pasteur d) Crick e) Pauling c The study of the physical functioning of plants and animals is called . physiology A unifying principle of biology states that there is a gradual modification of populations of living things over time that sometimes results in new species. This principle is called . evolution Observation of a natural event by more than one human or scientific instrument is the basis of the scientific method. True False true Choose the answer that best describes the sequence of the scientific method. a) guess, hypothesis, experiment, conclusion b) hypothesis, experiment, observation, conclusion c) observation, hypothesis, experiment, absolute fact d) experiment, observation, hypothesis, conclusion e) observation, hypothesis, experiment, conclusion e How living organisms relate to each other and to their physical environment 1. the functioning of plants and animals 2. molecular biology 3. ecology 3 Physiology 1. the functioning of plants and animals 2. molecular biology 3. ecology 1 Studying how molecules affect living beings 1. the functioning of plants and animals 2. molecular biology 3. ecology 2 Which of the following is true? a) A scientific fact and a scientific theory carry the same weight in the scientific community. b) A scientific theory is a hunch about a natural event. c) A scientific theory is the final answer to a question about a natural event. d) A scientific theory explains what we know to this date about a natural event. d Organelles are: a) compartments within cells. b) cells. c) organisms. d) a group of cells that serve a common function. e) proteins. a The development of the physical sciences differed from development of biological sciences in that: a) physical sciences offer the potential to find underlying principles, but such a goal is virtually impossible in biological sciences. b) physical sciences aimed to find underlying principles after this approach was taken in biological sciences. c) physical sciences aimed to find underlying principles before this approach was taken in biological sciences. d) physical sciences developed much more slowly than biological sciences. e) physical sciences developed more slowly than biological sciences because physical sciences are more difficult than biological science. c Which one of the following is true about scientific knowledge? a) Scientific knowledge is acquired though teachings passed on by great scientists. b) Scientific knowledge is derived from careful thinking about the way things must work based on application of a few fundamental principles. c) When based on many experiments, scientific knowledge is absolutely true. d) Scientific knowledge is derived from the strongest arguments made by the brightest scientists. e) Scientific knowledge is not absolute, because the possibility is always held open that new experiments may one day prove it wrong. e Which of the following is evidence that global warming is occurring? a) The intensity of hurricanes has been decreasing in recent years. b) The intensity of hurricanes has been increasing in recent years. c) The number of hurricanes has been increasing in recent years. d) The number of hurricanes has been decreasing in recent years. b The scientist who demonstrated that the Earth moves around the sun was . Copernicus The students in a classroom could be considered which of the following? a) a population b) an organism c) a niche d) a community e) a biosphere a When Pasteur tested the hypothesis of spontaneous generation, he compared the ability of a sterilized growth medium (meat broth) to produce a population of bacteria in two different types of flasks. One had a simple neck open to the outside, and the other had a "goose neck" bend that also was open to the environment. Pasteur expected that bacteria would appear in the flask with the standard neck. In this experiment, the standard neck flask served as: a) a variable. b) an observation. c) a statistic. d) a control. e) a hypothesis. d Living things inherit information from their parents encoded in: a) DNA. b) proteins. c) molecules. d) atoms. a Scientific observations: a) are limited to available equipment used to record a natural phenomenon. b) can be made directly by humans. c) can be made by instrumentation. d) all of the above d Which of the following is an example of statistics that were used to demonstrate that smoking causes lung cancer? a) A mathematical analysis of a large number of people with lung cancer demonstrated that far more people who smoked developed lung cancer. b) A woman who smoked developed lung cancer. c) A doctor notices that most of her lung cancer patients smoked. a Which of the following is an example of homeostasis? An organism that can: a) evolve from other living things. b) reproduce. c) respond to the environment. d) maintain a relatively constant internal environment. e) assimilate and use energy. d Which of the following is an example of how living things assimilate energy? a) solving a mathematics problem b) producing a new generation of children c) eating a meal d) blinking at a bright light c Which animals have had human genes inserted into their makeup to produce milk with human proteins? a) camels b) cattle c) goats d) horses c Which of the following is true of smoking? a) Lung cancer rates have been shown to rise and fall with smoking rates. b) Scientists knew in 1940 that smoking causes lung cancer. c) Before smoking became popular in the 1920s, lung cancer was common. a A theory must be supported by evidence. True False true If a sperm carrying a Y chromosome fertilizes a mother's egg, which of the following will be true? a) A sperm can't carry a Y chromosome; only the egg can. b) A baby boy will develop. c) A baby girl will develop. d) Nothing will happen. b A scientific explanation that is tentative and that requires more investigation is termed a/an: a) theory. b) fact. c) control. d) observation. e) hypothesis. e All of the kinds of living things in a given area are called a . community The experiments of Louis Pasteur to disprove spontaneous generation illustrate the process of the scientific method. True False true If a sperm carrying an X chromosome fertilizes a mother's egg, which of the following will be true? a) A sperm can't carry an X chromosome; only the egg can. b) Nothing will happen. c) A baby boy will develop. d) A baby girl will develop. d Currently there is a controversy over whether which of the following organisms is a direct descendant of the dinosaurs? a) frogs b) birds c) lizards d) snakes e) crocodiles b Imagine you're a biology instructor lecturing to a group of students interested in ecology, the branch of biology that studies interactions between organisms and their environments. They complain bitterly that they're not interested in atoms and molecules because these are irrelevant to their interests. As a responsible instructor aiming to provide a complete and meaningful education, you would state: a) "You need to study atoms and molecules because all biologists, regardless of their specific interests, should know about them." b) "You need to study atoms and molecules because it's in the book." c) "You need to study atoms and molecules because the organization of life is hierarchical; this implies that to understand the complex (ecology), you first need to understand the simpler underlying levels." d) "Ok, have it your way." e) "You to need to study atoms and molecules because they're important for many things." c Genetically altered salmon are grown to eating weight in half the normal time. True False true If you flip the light switch in your living room and nothing happens, what might be a good hypothesis to explain the absence of light? a) You might have made too many telephone calls this month, thereby reducing the amount of electricity in your lines. b) The air conditioner is also running upstairs, and it might be using all of the electricity available in your house at the moment. c) The circuit breaker for the living room might be the "off" position. d) Electricity sometimes flows backward in a wire, preventing the light from shining. c A hypothesis must be supported by evidence. True False false Tissues are: a) cells. b) compartments within cells. c) organisms. d) proteins e) a group of cells that serve a common function. e Which of the following is the correct order of complexity, going from least to most complex? a) organ, tissue, cell, organelle, atom, molecule b) molecule, atom, organ, tissue, cell, organelle c) organ, tissue, cell, organelle, molecule atom d) atom, molecule, organelle, cell, tissue, organ e) atom, molecule, organelle, cell, organ, tissue d Which of the following is a theory? a) There is molecular and biochemical evidence that all organisms are related. b) Many people claim that the Earth is only 6,000 years old. c) Many people believe echinacea cures their colds. d) A boy finds a chipped rock he believes is an arrowhead. a Isotopes have been used to: a) determine the age of fossils. b) detect bone cancer. c) create new elements. d) A and B e) A, B, and C d The mass of matter is proportional to the: a) density of matter. b) weight of matter. c) volume of matter. d) number of electrons. e) number of protons. b If an atom has an atomic number of 11, which of the electron shells are filled? a) the first shell b) the first, second, third, and fourth shell c) the first, second, and third shell d) the first and second shell d When you put sugar into your morning coffee or tea, the sugar is the , and the tea or coffee is the . a) solution, solute b) solute, solvent c) solvent, solution d) solute, solution e) solvent, solute b Cigarette smoking and exposure to sunlight the production of free radicals by our bodies. increase You have a substance and begin a set of experiments in which you break it down into other substances through chemical reactions. After a few successive reactions, you discover a set of products that can't be broken down further, no matter what type of chemical reaction you attempt. These substances are: a) electrons. b) elements. c) protons. d) isotopes. e) neutrons. b Acids release hydrogen ions into aqueous solutions. True False true If the atomic number is 18, then: a) the outermost energy level is full. b) this atom would be considered reactive. c) there are seven electrons in the outermost shell. d) the atom has 18 electrons in the nucleus. a An atom whose atomic number is 10 has how many electrons in its outermost energy level? a) two b) five c) ten d) three e) eight e Hydrogen bonds may form between oxygen of one water molecule and of another water molecule. hydrogen Which of the following is not a compound? a) methane b) a protein c) nitrogen d) glucose e) table salt c Nonpolar molecules develop when: a) one atom is much more electronegative than the other. b) electrons transfer from one atom to another. c) both atoms have similar electronegativity. d) shared electrons are not shared equally. b Potassium has one electron in its fourth shell, and chloride has seven electrons in its third shell. Which of the following is most likely to be true? a) The two atoms will share the electron unequally in a polar bond. b) The two atoms will share an electron equally in a covalent nonpolar bond. c) Potassium will give an electron to chloride to form an ionic bond. d) Chloride will give an electron to potassium to form an ionic bond. c Anything that occupies space is energy. True False false Atoms are electrically neutral. True False true proton: 1. positive charge 2. no charge 3. negative charge 4. ionic bond 5. polar covalent bond 6. hydrogen bond 7. nonpolar covalent bond 8. electron-proton interaction 1 Keeps most electrons from escaping the nucleus of an atom 1. positive charge 2. no charge 3. negative charge 4. ionic bond 5. polar covalent bond 6. hydrogen bond 7. nonpolar covalent bond 8. electron-proton interaction 8 Explains the attraction of water molecules for each other 1. positive charge 2. no charge 3. negative charge 4. ionic bond 5. polar covalent bond 6. hydrogen bond 7. nonpolar covalent bond 8. electron-proton interaction 6 Would be the least affected by the presence of water 1. positive charge 2. no charge 3. negative charge 4. ionic bond 5. polar covalent bond 6. hydrogen bond 7. nonpolar covalent bond 8. electron-proton interaction 7 neutrons 1. positive charge 2. no charge 3. negative charge 4. ionic bond 5. polar covalent bond 6. hydrogen bond 7. nonpolar covalent bond 8. electron-proton interaction 2 electrons 1. positive charge 2. no charge 3. negative charge 4. ionic bond 5. polar covalent bond 6. hydrogen bond 7. nonpolar covalent bond 8. electron-proton interaction 3 Results from an unequal sharing of shared electrons 1. positive charge 2. no charge 3. negative charge 4. ionic bond 5. polar covalent bond 6. hydrogen bond 7. nonpolar covalent bond 8. electron-proton interaction 5 Results from electrons being transferred between atoms 1. positive charge 2. no charge 3. negative charge 4. ionic bond 5. polar covalent bond 6. hydrogen bond 7. nonpolar covalent bond 8. electron-proton interaction 4 Sodium chloride (NaCl) crystals (table salt) form as a result of: a) chemical unreactivity. b) the attraction of oppositely charged particles for each other. c) covalent bonding. d) the lack of chemical attraction. b Nitrogen has seven protons, and hydrogen has one proton. Based on your knowledge of the rules of covalent bonding, which of the following molecules will form from the reaction of nitrogen and hydrogen? a) NH3 b) NH c) NH4 d) NH2 e) NH5a Two hydrogen atoms (atomic number 1) form a covalent bond. Which of the following is true? a) Both hydrogen atoms now have two protons in their outer shell. b) Both hydrogen atoms now have two electrons in their outer shell. c) One hydrogen atom now has zero protons in its outer shell, and the other has two. d) Each hydrogen atom still has one electron in its outer shell. e) One hydrogen atom now has zero electrons in its outer shell, and the other has two. b The component of an atom or molecule that is most important in determining its chemical bonding properties is the: a) nucleus. b) electron. c) proton. d) neutron. e) isotope. b Atoms form bonds to: a) fill their outer shells with electrons. b) obtain an equal number or protons and electrons. c) fill their outer shells with neutrons. d) obtain an equal number of protons and neutrons. e) fill their outer shells with protons. a Which type of bonding occurs between molecules and not within molecules? a) hydrogen b) polar covalent c) covalent d) ionic d Which of the following are found in the nucleus of an atom? a) neutrons b) protons c) electrons d) A and B e) A, B, and C d Hydrophobic molecules tend to be by water. a) repelled b) absorbed c) attracted d) mixed a Which of the following results from the making of a bond? a) Electrons are destroyed. b) Molecules are broken down. c) Atoms become more stable. d) Atoms become more reactive. c The electrons of an atom contribute significantly to the mass of an atom. True False false Covalent bonds form when one atom its with another atom. a) gives up; electrons b) gives up; protons c) gives up; neutrons d) shares; electrons e) shares; protons d An atom always contains the same number of protons as neutrons. True False false Water molecules are uncharged and . polar A single covalent chemical bond represents a sharing of electrons between two atoms. two The subatomic particles with the most mass are: a) protons. b) electrons. c) neutrons. d) both A and C d Chemical reactions that occur within living things change the nucleus of atoms. True False false Which of the following is true of chemical bonds? a) They cannot occur between two identical atoms. b) One atom can give up a proton to another to form bonds. c) Atoms can achieve a higher energy state and less stability by forming bonds. d) Two atoms can share an electron unequally, with one drawing it more toward itself. d When an electron passes from one atom to another: a) attraction occurs between two atoms based on opposite charges. b) the identity of the atom changes. c) a proton is also lost from the nucleus. d) the electron travels in orbitals around both the donor and recipient atom. b As an acid mixes in water: a) The solution will cool down. b) the number of hydrogen ions will increase. c) The pH remains at 7. d) the number of hydroxide ions will increase. b In what ways are hydrogen bonds and ionic bonds similar? a) Both are based on attraction between two atoms that each carry a negative charge. b) Both are based on attraction between two atoms that each carry a positive charge. c) Both are based on repulsion between atoms that carry differences in electrical charge. d) Both involve an even sharing of electrons between atoms. e) Both are based on attraction between atoms that carry differences in electrical charge. e What is it about carbon-12, carbon-13, and carbon-14 that makes them all carbon? a) They all have the number of neutrons that is characteristic of carbon. b) They all have the number of protons that is characteristic of carbon. c) They all have the number of protons plus neutrons that is characteristic of carbon. d) All are radioactive. e) All are elements. b Enzymes are proteins that catalyze specific reactions within a cell. For catalysis to occur, they require a starting substance to bind directly to the enzyme. What must be true for this binding to happen correctly? a) Both the enzyme and the starting substance must be hydrophilic. b) The starting substance must be larger than the enzyme. c) Both the enzyme and the starting substance need to have matching shapes. d) The enzyme must be acidic, and the starting substance must be basic. c You mix sugar in water and stir until it's completely dissolved. In this system, the water is the , the sugar is the , and the end result is a . a) solution; solvent; solute b) solvent; solution; solute c) solute; solvent; solution d) solvent; solute; solution e) solute; solution; solvent d Protons move at very fast speeds around the outside of the nucleus of an atom. True False false Hydrogen bonds are very important in the functional shape of: a) proteins. b) sugars. c) fats. d) nucleic aids. e) Both A and D are true e An element can't be broken down into another form of pure matter. True False true Oxygen has six electrons in its second outer shell. How many covalent bonds is oxygen likely to make with hydrogen, which has one electron in its first outer shell? a) one b) eight c) two d) three e) six c An element with 22 protons, 22 neutrons, and 22 electrons would have an atomic number of: a) 44. b) 22. c) 11. d) 66. b Isotopes are atoms of the same element that differ in their: a) ionic charge. b) number of protons. c) number of electrons. d) number of neutrons. d A(n) has a higher pH than a(n) . base; acid The subatomic particles that play the greatest role in cellular chemical reactions are: a) neutrons. b) protons. c) isotopes. d) electrons. d Which of the following is not a component of atoms? a) neutrons b) molecules c) protons d) electrons b A signal will to a receptor if the molecules shape match, similar to a key in a lock. bind An atom will react with other atoms only until: a) all of its outermost orbitals have been filled. b) it has achieved maximum stability. c) it has completely filled its outmost energy level. d) All of the above are true. d Ionic bonds occur through a sharing of electrons. True False false Neutrons are negatively charged. True False false The symbol 3CO2 represents: a) three carbon atoms and one molecule of oxygen. b) one atom of carbon and three atoms of oxygen. c) three molecules of carbon dioxide. d) one atom of oxygen and three of carbon. c The naturally occurring helium atom is chemically inert because: a) it has all of the shared electrons it could ever have. b) its outermost shell is filled with electrons. c) it has the most protons that it could ever carry. d) its nucleus is filled with two neutrons. b orbit around the nucleus of an atom. Electrons H2S is an example of a: a) structural formula. b) space-filling model. c) ball-and-stick formula. d) molecular formula. e) none of the above d The mass within an atom comes from: a) protons and neutrons. b) protons only. c) electrons only. d) protons, neutrons, and electrons. a Chlorine has an atomic number of 17, and argon has an atomic number of 18. From this information alone, you can predict that: a) chlorine is more chemically reactive than argon. b) argon will more readily ionize than chlorine. c) argon has more neutrons than chlorine. d) chlorine has more neutrons than argon. e) argon is more chemically reactive than chlorine. a The number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom gives it a unique chemical nature. True False false For an atom to be considered an ion: a) neutrons can outnumber protons. b) protons can outnumber neutrons. c) protons can outnumber electrons. d) protons equal electrons. c In a bottle of water, hydrogen bonding occurs between the hydrogen of one atom and: a) an oxygen atom in a different molecule. b) a hydrogen atom in a different molecule. c) an oxygen atom in the same water molecule. d) a hydrogen atom in the same molecule. a Isotopes differ from each other in the number of protons that they possess. True False false When atoms form bonds, they share or exchange: a) electrons. b) neutrons. c) protons. d) A and B e) A, B, and C a Water is a polar molecule because: a) oxygen has more electrons than hydrogen. b) oxygen has more neutrons than hydrogen. c) hydrogen has more neutrons than oxygen. d) hydrogen is more electronegative than oxygen. e) oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen. e Which of the following would form the fewest covalent bonds? a) hydrogen (one electron it the first shell) b) neon (eight electrons in the second shell) c) oxygen (six electrons in the second shell) d) carbon (four electrons in the second shell) b An atom becomes an ion when: a) hydrogen ions are shared. b) it gains or loses neutrons. c) it gains or loses electrons. d) it forms a covalent bond. e) it gains or loses protons. c The skeleton from which steroids hormones are made is . cholesterol May serve as either enzymes or antibodies 1. DNA 2. polysaccharide 3. glycoproteins 4. globular proteins 4 Is composed of functional units call genes 1. DNA 2. polysaccharide 3. glycoproteins 4. globular proteins 1 Serve as cell surface receptors 1. DNA 2. polysaccharide 3. glycoproteins 4. globular proteins 3 A carbohydrate polymer 1. DNA 2. polysaccharide 3. glycoproteins 4. globular proteins 2 Wax is a lipid. True False true Keratin is an example of a protein. structural Ribosomes are made up of . RNA Which of the following is an organic molecule? a) H2O b) C4H10 c) O2 d) NH3 b An example of an important organic molecule that may contain the —NH2 group is: a) an enzymes. b) steroids. c) a starch. d) a glucose molecule. e) a triglyceride. a What do polysaccharides, such as cellulose; nucleic acids, such as DNA; and proteins, such as keratin, have in common? a) They are all amino acids. b) They are all lipids. c) They are all built of chemically linked monomers. d) They are all carbohydrates. e) They are all nonpolar. c Which of the following is the indigestible (at least for humans) glucose polysaccharide that is found in plants? a) glycogen b) starch c) chitin d) cellulose d Which of the following are composed of only carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen? a) phospholipids b) amino acids c) DNA d) glucose d Before DNA was established as the genetic material, proteins were considered the most likely molecules to serve this role. In part this belief was based on the fact that there are 20 building blocks (20 different kinds of amino acids) for proteins versus four building blocks (four different nucleotides) for DNA. If proteins stored a code, there would be a far greater number of code words possible for a protein of a given number of amino acids than for a DNA molecule of the same number of nucleotides. For example, there are 16 different sequences (4 4) possible for a DNA two nucleotides, long and 400 (20 20) different sequences possible for a protein two amino acids long. For a sequence three nucleotides or three amino acids in length, the number of distinct DNA sequences is , and the number of distinct protein sequences is . a) 800; 8,000 b) 64; 8,000 c) 20; 240 d) 64; 800 e) 30; 800 b Monosaccharides are determined by which of the following groups? a) a molecule of three to six carbon atoms b) a carboxyl group c) the presence of glycerol and fatty acids d) carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a ratio of 1:2:1 e) the presence of carbon and hydrogen in a ratio of 1:2 d Proteins may function as: a) structural building materials. b) transport molecules. c) hormones. d) enzymes. e) all of the above e Refer to the chemical reaction below then answer the question that follows. Glucose + fructose 1 → sucrose + water ← 2 Which molecule is the disaccharide? a) glucose b) sucrose c) fatty acids d) water b Sugar is an organic molecule because it contains: a) water. b) carbon and hydrogen. c) carbon and oxygen. d) carbon dioxide. e) carbon and nitrogen. b Lipids: a) are a component of proteins. b) include cartilage and chitin. c) include fats that are broken down into one fatty acid molecule and three glycerol molecules. d) serve as long-term energy reserves in many organisms. d Polypeptides differ in their and of amino acids. number; kinds Your muscles contract using contractile proteins to produce movement. True False true You eat a steak. This meal contains mostly of: a) protein. b) nucleic acids. c) starch. d) glucose. a Glycogen is used to store in the . a) glucose, spleen b) glucose, liver c) protein, muscle d) protein, liver e) nucleic acids, liver b What do wax and testosterone have in common? a) They are both hormones. b) They are both steroids. c) They are both lipids. d) They are both proteins. c All hormones are steroids. True False false Oil doesn't dissolve in water because it isn't a molecule. polar Butter, which is made from milk fat, tends to be harder at room temperature than most margarines. If you wanted to make a "softer" butter at cool room temperature, you should consider: a) creating more double bonds in the fatty acid chains. b) adding more than three fatty acid chains to the triglycerides. c) making the fatty acid chains longer. d) making fatty acid chains with fewer kinks. e) saturating the fatty acid chains. a Which of the following lipids is the primary component in cell membranes? a) glycerol b) phospholipids c) triglycerides d) steroids b The structural backbone of any membranous structure in a cell is the: a) membrane-bound proteins. b) glycoproteins. c) the phospholipid bilayer. d) glycolipids. e) steroids. c Carbon is such an important molecule for life because: a) it can form chemical bonds with a maximum of four other atoms. b) it can hydrogen bond to so many molecules. c) it is part of the water molecule. d) it can be bonded ionically. e) it can form isomers. a Glycogen is the carbohydrate found in plant cell walls. True False false It is recommended to include fish as part of a healthy diet because it contains , which lead to a reduction in LDL. a) monounsaturated fats b) trans fats c) polyunsaturated fats d) omega-3 fatty acidsd Both men and women make testosterone. True False true You love to eat potato chips, but you realize they contain many trans fats. Eating too many potato chips will negatively effect your health because it can: a) cause you to have more HDL than LDL. b) cause you to have more LDL than HDL. c) cause you to have no LDL. d) cause you to have no HDL. b A triglyceride contains fatty acid chains, whereas a phospholipid contains fatty acid chains. a) four; two b) two; three c) two; four d) three;two d Only those proteins that are composed of more than one polypeptide when they are functional are said to have structure. Refer to the figure above for help. a) tertiary b) secondary c) quaternary d) primary c Hydroxyl groups are found on all amino acids. True False false The monomers of a neutral fat (triglyceride) are: a) amino acids. b) sugars. c) glycerol and fatty acids. d) carboxyl acids. e) nucleotides. c Lipids with double bonds become solids at lower temperatures than do saturated fats. True False false Oxygen is an organic molecule. True False false It is better to have HDLs than LDLs in your blood. more The difference between one amino acid and another is: a) the type of peptide bond that each contains. b) the type of sugar that each contains. c) the type of base groups it contains. d) the type of R-group that it may contain. e) whether or not it is saturated. d In plants, glucose is stored primarily as: a) glycogen. b) chitin. c) cellulose. d) starch. d Which of the following is not a monosaccharide? a) fructose b) deoxyribose c) cellulose d) glucose c A nucleotide is a polymer of nucleic acids. True False false The active site of an enzyme is a product of its . three-dimensional shape (conformation) Some proteins can be toxic. True False true A kilocalorie is the amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1,000 grams of water 1 degree Celsius (the "calories" given for energy in foods are actually kilocalories). If you applied 1 kilocalorie of heat energy to 1,000 grams of vegetable oil, how much do you think its temperature would increase? a) to the boiling point b) more than one degree Celsius c) less than one degree Celsius d) one degree Celsius e) none at all b If you boil an egg for lunch, the egg white becomes hard, white, and opaque because the protein in it has been . denatured Some proteins function as enzymes, but others don't. True False true In some vintage science fiction movies, space travelers find themselves on a planet orbiting a distant star in which there are curious forms of life based on silicon instead of carbon. Although the story clearly is sci-fi, there is an aura of plausibility in the choice of silicon, an atom with 14 protons, in place of carbon as this alien life-form's central atom. The reason is that silicon: a) is heavier than carbon. b) has one more proton than carbon so is very similar to it. c) is lighter than carbon. d) has four electrons in its outermost shell. e) is an isotope of carbon. d The polymer of amino acids that makes up a protein is called a . polypeptide You notice that water is running off the feathers of a bird in the rain. The reason is probably that the bird has coated the feathers with , which keeps the water out of them. a) proteins b) nucleic acids c) polysaccarides d) lipids d Saturated fats are usually found in: a) a beef steak. b) canola oil. c) safflower oil. d) cocounut oil. e) both A and D e Your cousin eats only rice. Her diet will be very high in which of the following types of biological molecules? a) fat b) cholesterol c) glucose d) protein c You isolate a protein that is actually made up of three separate polypeptides. This is an example of: a) quaternary structure. b) primary structure. c) secondary structure. d) tertiary structure. a The chitin that makes up the exoskeleton of insects is made of a polymer of amino acids. True False false Which of the following is true of cellulose? a) Plants store amino acids as cellulose. b) Animals store glucose as cellulose. c) Plants' cell walls are made up of cellulose. d) Plants store glucose as cellulose. c Which of the following is a type of lipid? a) steroids b) triglycerides c) oils d) all of the above d DNA is made up of: a) nucleotides. b) proteins. c) sugars. d) amino acids. e) steroids. a Water is an organic molecule. True False false Amino acids contain both amine and carboxyl functional groups. True False true Which of the following is/are true of steroids? a) If people inject male steroid hormones, they can build muscle mass, but they can have side effects. b) Cholesterol is a steroid. c) They exist naturally in humans as hormones. d) A and B are true. e) A, B, and C are true. e Proteins are made up of: a) sugars. b) nucleotides. c) amino acids. d) steroids. e) lipids. c Glycogen is a polysaccharide used for energy storage by: a) animals. b) plants. c) fungi. d) monera. a ATP is an energy-carrying modified . nucleotide Chitin and cellulose are polymers of: a) fats. b) nucleic acids. c) amino acids. d) glucose. d Polysaccharides are made up of: a) lipids. b) amino acids. c) sugars. d) nucleotides. e) steroids. c Unique chemical groups that are added to carbon compounds are called: a) functional groups. b) lipids. c) amino acids. d) monomers. a Which of the following is the correct order for the flow of information in the cell? a) RNA codes for DNA, which codes for protein. b) DNA codes for protein, which codes for RNA. c) DNA codes for RNA, which codes for protein. d) Proteins code for DNA, which codes for RNA. c Nucleotides are the building blocks for: a) disaccharides. b) proteins. c) lipids. d) ATP and RNA. e) steroids. d are the very heart of life, allowing cells to do such things as build structures, speed chemical reactions, and move. a) Carbohydrates b) Lipids c) Sterols d) Nucleic acids e) Proteins e Which of the following is an organic molecule? a) lipid b) protein c) monosaccharide d) nucleic e) all of above e You have a defect in catalyzing the reaction to make the amino acid tryptophan. The reason is that you lack the gene in your , which causes you to lack the that allows you to catalyze this reaction. DNA; enzyme What determines whether a protein will be produced on a "free ribosome" or on one attached to the endoplasmic reticulum? a) The mRNA of certain proteins moves directly to ribosomes already attached to the ER. b) Every ribosome will migrate to the ER. c) a chemical signal on the protein being produced d) Microtubules attach randomly to ribosomes and move a fraction of them to the ER. c Cells can increase the number or size of some organelles in response to new demands. The amount of one organelle often is increased dramatically in the livers of alcoholics. Based on what you know of organelle function, this organelle is the: a) nucleus. b) ribosome. c) Glogi apparatus. d) mitochondrion. e) smooth endoplasmic reticulum e The nucleolus protects the DNA inside the nucleus while it is being copied into RNA. True False false You isolate a cell with the following characteristics: (1) no nucleus, (2) no requirement for oxygen, and (3) 2 μm in size. This cell could be: a) an animal cell. b) a bacterium. c) a plant cell. d) A or B e) A, B, or C b A secretory protein that exits from the ER within a vesicle will head directly to: a) the plasma membrane. b) the nucleus. c) the mitochondria. d) the cytosol. e) the Glogi complex. e The cytoskeleton is composed of: a) microfilaments, mitochondria, and intermediate filaments. b) microfilaments, cilia, and intermediate filaments. c) microtubules, intermediate filaments, and cilia. d) microfilaments, microtubules, and lysosomes. e) microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules. e One of the main structural ingredients of the eukaryotic plant cell wall is: a) cellulose. b) granola. c) mitochondria. d) glucose. e) protein. a The cytoskeleton of animal cells really is a bit like the skeleton of the whole animal in the way it provides structure to cells. But the cytoskeleton is also like another important part of animals. This is the: a) muscular system. b) immune system. c) nervous system. d) digestive system. a Which of the following describes a prokaryotic cell? a) It would not have a nucleus. b) A plant cells is an example. c) It would have mitochondria. d) A human cells are an example. e) It would contain endoplasmic reticulum. a Gap junctions are found in plant cells. True False false Mitochondria and chloroplasts are similar to one another in that: a) both capture the energy of the sun during photosynthesis and store it as sugar. b) both convert the energy of the sugar into ATP for use by the cell. c) both have their own DNA and are surrounded by a double membrane. d) both are present in all eukaryotic cells. c The central vacuole is used for nutrient storage and photosynthesis in plant cells. True False false The function of ribosomes is to synthesize: a) RNA. b) proteins. c) lipids. d) DNA. e) polysaccharides. b Which of the following is an example of a eukaryotic cell? a) a bacterium b) a plant cell c) an archaea d) a virus b Two organelles that are believed to be remnants of unicellular bacteria are: a) mitochondria and chloroplasts. b) mitochondria and ER. c) ribosomes and chloroplasts. d) flagella and ribosomes. e) ER and flagella. a You are a physician treating a child with a genetic disorder in which the child does not secrete an enzyme for lipid metabolism. What organelle would be dysfunctional and prohibit this enzyme's secretion? the Golgi complex Lysosomes produce within a cell. True False false The large central vacuole of plants: a) allows the plant to produce its own food. b) may make up as much as 90 percent of the internal volume of the cell. c) produces proteins. d) replaces the nucleus. b Animal cells need oxygen most directly to: a) producte protein. b) secrete enzymes. c) produce ATP. d) produce DNA. c The most common form of cystic fibrosis, a fatal genetic disease, occurs when a protein destined for the plasma membrane of the cell is destroyed. The protein is destroyed by one of the cell's organelles because the protein is not shaped correctly. Which organelle recognizes the misshaped protein? a) Golgi apparatus b) lysosome c) ribosome d) nucleus e) endoplasmic reticulum e Who was the first person to refer to a single unit within a living organism as a "cell"? a) Robert Downy b) Anton van Leeunwenhoek c) James Watson d) Robert Hooke d A nanometer is larger than a micrometer. True False false The relationship between surface and volume (the surface-to-volume ratio) of cubes of two different sizes has a lot to do with explaining why cells are small. Cells are small so that they maintain a: a) low surface-to-volume ratio. b) high surface-to-volume ratio. c) constant volume. d) nucleus and cytomembrane system. e) constant surface area. a You isolate a cell with a cell wall, chloroplasts, and a central vacuole. This cell is most likely a mRNA carries a code from the to make a particular polypeptide.DNA The rough endoplasmic reticulum is the site where lipid synthesis occurs in an animal cell. True False false The cytoskeleton is an internal scaffolding used for cellular movement. True False true Indicate which of the following choices correctly ranks the given objects in size, from smallest to largest. a) protein, virus, bacterium, frog egg, animal cell b) protein, virus, bacterium, animal cell, frog egg c) protein, bacterium, virus, animal cell, frog egg d) virus, protein, bacterium, animal cell, frog egg e) bacterium, virus, protein, animal cell, frog egg b Vesicles that contain digestive enzymes are called lysosomes. True False true Prokaryotic cells lack: a) DNA. b) ribosomes. c) proteins. d) internal compartmentalization. d Which of the following is found in plant cells but not in animal cells? a) chloroplast b) mitochondria c) nucleus d) lysosomes e) ribosomes a Smoker's cough results from damage to the external structure of lung cells by tobacco smoke. What part of the cell would you predict is damaged? a) plasmodesmata b) cilia c) the mitochondria d) the Golgi appartatus e) the lysosome b People with oxidative phosphorylation disorders suffer a lack of energy due to diminished function of nerve and muscle cells. The organelle most likely to be altered in oxidative phosphorylation disorders is the: a) rough endoplasmic reticulum. b) cytoskeleton. c) cell wall. d) chloroplast. e) mitochondrion. e Ribosomes are found only with eukaryotic cells. True False false Plant cells often contain large central vacuoles and chloroplasts. True False true Without photosynthesis, humans could not survive. True False true You have isolated a new organism that is 0.5 micrometers in size. This organism is most likely: a) a virus. b) a plant cell. c) a bacterium. d) This organism could be any of the above. e) an animal cell. c Which of the following is a characteristic of plant cells and not animal cells? a) lysosome b) microtubule c) mitochondrion d) a central vacuole d Plasmodesmata allow plant cells to actually be connected to each other. True False true Eukaryotic animal cells contain centrioles and chloroplasts. True False false Within the cisternae of the RER: a) proteins get fatty acids added to them. b) proteins get phospholipids added to them. c) proteins get a side-chain of carbohydrate added to them. d) proteins assume their tertiary structure. e) proteins are synthesized from nucleotides. c Which of the following explains why cells are so small? a) They can only produce a limited amount of cell membrane components. b) As cell surface area increases, cell volume increases faster. c) As cell surface area increases, cell volume decreases. d) As cell volume increases, surface area decreases. e) As cell volume increases, surface area increases faster. b Mitochondria require which of the following in order to function? a) ATP b) oxygen c) carbon dioxide d) Water b Insulin is a protein made in large amounts in cells of the pancreas. These cells secrete insulin into the blood, where it controls the uptake of sugar by body cells. How is insulin transported from the ER to the surface of the cell? a) It moves along tracks of cytoskeleton proteins. b) It is sent through the cavities (lumen) of the endoplasmic reticulum that attach directly to the plasma membrane. c) It is carried by lysosomes that empty their contents outside the cell. d) It is carried in small sacs of membrane (vesicles) that move from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus and then to the plasma membrane. e) It moves through plasmodesmata to the surface of the cell. d You owe your very life to chloroplasts. The reason is that: a) chloroplasts produce all the water and carbon dioxide essential for life. b) when we eat plants, it is the chloroplasts that are the nutritious part of plant cells. c) chloroplasts supply all the ATP needed by living organisms. d) like the ancestors of mitochondria, the ancestors of chloroplasts were once bacteria taken up by a eukaryotic cell. e) chloroplasts produce the oxygen we breathe and ultimately are the source of most nutrients we consume. e Which of the following is not involved in transport of materials within a eukaryotic cell? a) the rought endoplasmic reticulum b) lysosome c) mitochondrion d) the Golgi complex c Both cilia and flagella are involved in which of the following functions? a) production of proteins b) expelling waste c) movement of materials d) energy production e) division of the cell c Which of the following are associated with matter and energy transfers in eukaryotic cells? a) mitochondria and smooth ER b) lysosomes and Golgi complex c) chloroplasts and mitochondria d) mitochondria and rough ER e) chloroplasts and the cell wall c The part of a prokaryotic cell that contains the cellular DNA is called the . nucleoid Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? a) endomembrane system - cilia b) microfilaments - permanent c) microtubules - tubulin d) intermediate filaments - actin c The function of the nucleus is to: a) contain and replicate the DNA. b) add sugars to proteins. c) produce proteins. d) organize the cytoskeleton. e) contain the cytoplasm. a The boundary of a cell is the: a) cell membrane. b) cytoskeleton. c) cytosol. d) nucleus. a Most animal cells are between 10 and 100 μm. True False true The basic building compartments of life on this planet are called: a) proteins. b) energy. c) phospholipids. d) cells. e) organelles. d Only eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles. True False true Which of the following expresses an accurate difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? a) Prokaryotes have organelles, but eukaryotes do not. b) Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotes. c) Eukaryotes have a nucleus, but prokaryotes do not. d) Prokaryotes are can be multicellular, but eukaryotes cannot. c Eukaryotic animal cells are surrounded by a cell wall. True False false Which of the following is not considered an organelle? a) a lysosome b) a ribosome c) a mitochondrion d) DNA d The surface-to-volume ratio of a cube 1 centimeter on a side is 6 (the cube has a surface area of 6 square centimeters, a volume of 1 cubic centimeter). What would be the surface-to-volume ratio of a cube 2 centimeters on a side? a) 1 b) 1/2 c) 6 d) 3 e) 20 d Which cell type can produce proteins? a) both prokaryotes and eukaryotes b) neither prokaryotes nor eukaryotes c) eukaryotes only d) prokaryotes only b The compartment that holds most of a eukaryotic cell's DNA is the . nucleus Actin and myosin are called . microfilaments Tiny holes that are channels between animal cells are called gap junctions. True False true An important by-product of photosynthesis is: a) glucose. b) water. c) protein. d) starch. e) oxygen. e Which of the following is the correct order of events in a cell? a) RNA makes DNA; DNA makes protein. b) DNA makes RNA; RNA makes protein. c) RNA makes protein; protein makes DNA. d) Protein makes DNA; DNA makes RNA. e) DNA makes protein; protein makes RNA. b What maintains cell shape, anchors organelles in place, and moves materials within a cell? a) cytoskeleton b) Golgi complex c) cilia d) hydrogen bonds a Which of the following is evidence that mitochondria may have at one time been independently living bacteria? a) The sequence of mitochondrial DNA is very similar to that of bacterial DNA. b) Mitochondria can live and reproduce outside cells in the laboratory. c) Bacteria, like mitochondria, have internal membranes. d) Mitochondria can produce their own food. a The protein structures that support cilia and flagella of eukaryotic cells are called . microtubules Which of the following is a function of nuclear pores? a) to allow DNA to leave the nucleus to go to the cytoplasm b) to allow newly synthesized protein to leave the nucleus to go to the cytoplasm c) to allow RNA to enter the nucleus from the cytoplasm d) to allow DNA to enter the nucleus from the cytoplasm e) to allow RNA to leave the nucleus to go to the cytoplasm e Which choice below correctly matches organelle with function? a) smooth endoplasmic reticulum — lipid production b) lysosome — energy generation c) cytoskeleton — recycling of materials d) mitochondria — food generation a Many antibiotics work by blocking the function of ribosomes. Therefore, these antibiotics will: a) block DNA synthesis. b) block RNA synthesis. c) block protein synthesis. d) prevent the movement of proteins through nuclear pores. e) make the two nuclear membranes fuse into one. c The protein actin is found in the: a) nucleus. b) thin filaments. c) thick filaments. d) membrane. b May have "ground substance" 1. Connective tissue 2. Muscle tissue 3. Nervous tissue 4. Epithelial 1 "Smooth" is one type 1. Connective tissue 2. Muscle tissue 3. Nervous tissue 4. Epithelial 2 Inclueds glial cells 1. Connective tissue 2. Muscle tissue 3. Nervous tissue 4. Epithelial 3 Covers surfaces and forms linings 1. Connective tissue 2. Muscle tissue 3. Nervous tissue 4. Epithelial 4 A sweat gland is a type of exocrine gland. True False true The discipline dealing with the study of how parts of the body work is: a) endocrinology. b) anatomy. c) mechanics. d) physiology. b In the textbook, the stomach was given as an example of an organ. Which of the following is a valid description of the work of one of its tissues? a) Its nervous tissue communicates directly with the intestines to coordinate digestion. b) Its epithelial tissue secretes substances that help with digestion. c) Its muscle tissue forces secretions out of glands and into the stomach. d) Its connective tissue helps drain the stomach contents. b Groups of cells with a common function make up a/an: a) organ. b) gland. c) tissue. d) limb. e) organ system. c A prescription medication lists a rare side effect of impairing the movement of smooth muscle. This medication could potentially affect the: a) heart. b) walls of the small intestine. c) muscles that move the eyeballs. d) muscles that move your arms and legs. b Which of the following typically connects a bone to another bone? a) ligaments b) cartilage c) tendons d) marrow a A function of connective tissue is to: a) move the muscles of the body. b) protect and cover the body. c) form glands. d) stabilize and support the body. d Which part of the muscle cell actually does the work of contraction by attaching, pivoting, and pulling? a) calcium ions b) neurotransmitter molecules c) myosin heads d) actin filaments c Smooth muscle may be moved by either voluntary or involuntary control depending on location in the body. True False false The thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities are separated by the: a) lungs. b) rib cage. c) diaphragm. d) vertebral column. c Keratinized cells near the surface of the epidermis are: a) derived from nervous tissue. b) found in a single layer. c) about one month old. d) mostly dead and water resistant. d Blood vessels and nerves are found in which part of compact bone? a) in central canals b) only in the marrow cavity c) only on the outside surface d) in osteoblasts a In humans, the heart and lungs are found in the: a) cranial cavity. b) thoracic cavity. c) abdominopelvic cavity. d) spinal cavity. b Which of the following is characteristic of cardiac muscle? a) It is not striated. b) It is most similar in appearance to smooth muscle. c) It contracts under the control of its pacemaker cells. d) It is found only in the heart and blood vessels. c Subcutaneous fat tissue in humans is located mainly in the dermis. True False false Structures such as hair and nails are part of the: a) endocrine system. b) lymphatic system. c) muscular system. d) integumentary system. e) skeletal system. d Which human body system would be best described as playing roles in both waste disposal and conservation? a) nervous b) cardiovascular c) respiratory d) urinary e) lymphatic d Hair color (or lack of it) is mostly due to: a) a colored version of keratin. b) sweat gland pigments. c) activity of melanocytes. d) sebaceous gland pigments. c The function of epithelial tissue is to: a) form the immune system. b) protect and cover the body. c) support the body. d) allow for movement of the body. b Muscle tissue has a specialized ability to: a) protect the body. b) provide an internal framework for the body. c) shorten or contract. d) form the glands. e) support the body. c Structures of the skeletal system include all of the following except: a) nails. b) cartilage. c) bone. d) ligaments. a Acne is caused by problems with the: a) sweat glands. b) sebaceous glands. c) hair follicles. d) endocrine glands. b Homeostasis is maintained mostly by positive feedback. True False false Glial cells are cells found in which type of tissue? a) connective b) muscle c) nervous d) epithelial c Bone, cartilage, adipose tissue, and blood are all examples of: a) epithelial tissue. b) nervous tissue. c) connective tissue. d) small organ systems. e) muscle tissue. c The dermis is mostly made up of connective tissue. True False true The abdominopelvic cavity is part of the larger ventral body cavity. True False true Which of